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- Path: sparky!uunet!olivea!charnel!rat!usc!news.service.uci.edu!beckman.com!dn66!a_rubin
- From: a_rubin@dsg4.dse.beckman.com (Arthur Rubin)
- Newsgroups: sci.math
- Subject: Re: f(f(x)) = exp(x)
- Keywords: f(f(x)) = exp(x)
- Message-ID: <a_rubin.727732244@dn66>
- Date: 22 Jan 93 19:50:44 GMT
- References: <1jmrrgINN566@edam.csv.warwick.ac.uk>
- Organization: Beckman Instruments, Inc.
- Lines: 17
- Nntp-Posting-Host: dn66.dse.beckman.com
-
- In <1jmrrgINN566@edam.csv.warwick.ac.uk> mapaj@csv.warwick.ac.uk (Mr A Scott) writes:
-
-
- > Is anything known about the existence of solutions f ( f:reals ---> reals ) of
- >the equation; f ( f ( x ) ) = exp ( x ) for all real x ? Examples of such f or
- >proofs of nonexistence of f would be appreciated. This problem is just for "fun"!
- >I've tried induction on x, but that doesn't work. :-) :-) :-) :-)
-
- I posted the same question last year (attributing it to the late Richard
- Feynmann). Concensus seemed to be that it is clear there are C^{\infinity}
- solutions, but that a real-analytic solution does exist. If noone else
- gives detailed information, I can send you want I've retained.
- --
- Arthur L. Rubin: a_rubin@dsg4.dse.beckman.com (work) Beckman Instruments/Brea
- 216-5888@mcimail.com 70707.453@compuserve.com arthur@pnet01.cts.com (personal)
- My opinions are my own, and do not represent those of my employer.
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