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- Path: sparky!uunet!mtnmath!paul
- From: paul@mtnmath.UUCP (Paul Budnik)
- Newsgroups: sci.physics
- Subject: Re: QM non-causal?
- Message-ID: <445@mtnmath.UUCP>
- Date: 22 Dec 92 17:15:22 GMT
- References: <1992Dec21.131354.29282@oracorp.com>
- Organization: Mountain Math Software, P. O. Box 2124, Saratoga. CA 95070
- Lines: 23
-
- In article <1992Dec21.131354.29282@oracorp.com>, daryl@oracorp.com (Daryl McCullough) writes:
- [...]
- > No, I am only considering the possibilities. *If* the wave function is
- > physical, *then* instantaneous collapse implies that something nonlocal
- > is happening. If it is not physical, then its collapse does not imply
- > anything nonlocal. [...]
-
- The point of Bell's inequality and the proof that quantum mechanics
- violates it is that something nonlocal must happen, if you assume that
- the wave function you use to compute probabilities changes instantaneously.
- This is independent of what interpretation of QM you prefer and independent
- of the physicality of the wave function. I say `the wave function you
- use to compute probabilities', because there may be no change in the wave
- function. They may all exist simultaneously and you only choose a different
- one as the result of an observation. I could care less about the metaphysics.
- The point is that the *calculations* in QM produce nonlocal predictions as
- a consequence of the assumption that the wave function you use in
- computations changes instantaneously.
-
- This *physical* effect of the computations suggests to me that there is
- a physical wave function and that it does *not* change instantaneously.
-
- Paul Budnik
-