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- Newsgroups: sci.physics
- Path: sparky!uunet!stanford.edu!CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU!Sunburn.Stanford.EDU!pratt
- From: pratt@Sunburn.Stanford.EDU (Vaughan R. Pratt)
- Subject: Re: TIME HAS INERTIA
- Message-ID: <1992Nov20.230233.18271@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU>
- Keywords: CORRECTION FUNDAMENTAL THM. OF ALGEBRA
- Sender: news@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU
- Organization: Computer Science Department, Stanford University.
- References: <1992Nov19.074930.15845@CSD-NewsHost.Stanford.EDU> <1992Nov20.100104.17600@prl.philips.nl> <1992Nov20.190744.6915@meteor.wisc.edu>
- Date: Fri, 20 Nov 1992 23:02:33 GMT
- Lines: 55
-
- In article <1992Nov20.190744.6915@meteor.wisc.edu> tobis@meteor.wisc.edu (Michael Tobis) writes:
- >I note that Abian has not reposted the analysis taht originally caught
- >my attention, where the fallacy is equally egregious but much more obvious.
- >
- >As I recall, he obtained an expression (1 + z + z^2) and "proved" it equal
- >to zero by synthetic division yielding two "different" results. The obvious
- >problem with this approach is that it results in 1 + z + z^2 = 0 FOR ALL Z.
- >The flaw is similar to the one you point out, i.e., one of the series is
- >divergent.
-
- You're misremembering some details of the proof, I've attached it below.
-
- Your objection about divergent series does not hold water. To prove
- that 1+z+z^2 has a zero Abian assumes it does not and argues that under
- this hypothesis one is permitted to exand 1/(1+z+z^2) out in a Laurent
- series as
-
- 1/(z^2) - 1/(z^3) + 1/(z^5) - 1/(z^6) + ...
-
- from which he obtains a contradiction. Your argument seems to be that
- 1/(1+z+z^2) can't be so expanded. Whether or not it can be, you are
- forgetting that any reductio ad absurdum *must* contain some absurdity
- in order to succeed. Pointing out a falsehood during a reductio ad
- absurdum does not demonstrate a flaw in the proof. If his expansion is
- valid for a complex function with a derivative defined everywhere you
- cannot complain about such a valid use, regardless of how absurd it may
- seem to you.
-
- When I first saw the proof my reaction was that the bug must be that a
- sum of singularities such as 1/(z^2) - 1/(z^3) + 1/(z^5) - 1/(z^6) + ...
- need not itself be a singularity. Then I somehow talked myself out of
- this in a weak moment. Now that I look again I don't see how it
- follows that this sum of singularities need be a singularity. Unless
- Abian can demonstrate this, I would say *that* was a real flaw in
- his argument. Mr. Abian?
-
- I haven't checked whether the division itself is valid, but this
- becomes a moot point if my objection is sustained.
-
- For the record here's Abian's proof (that 1+z+z^2 has a zero) again.
-
- > PROOF. Assume on the contrary, and without loss of generality, let
- > 1 + z + z^2 have no root, i.e., 1 + z + z^2 never vanishes.
- >Long divide 1 by 1+z+z^2 in two ways - in descending and ascending
- >powers of z, i.e.,
- >
- > 1/ (1+z+z^2) = 1 - z + z^3 - z^4 + z^6 - ...
- >
- > 1/ (z^2+z+1) = 1/(z^2) - 1/(z^3) + 1/(z^5) - 1/(z^6) + ...
- >
- >The two expressions on the right side of = must be identical. But
- >they are not. Contradiction. Hence our assumption is false and the
- >Theorem is proved.
- --
- Vaughan Pratt A fallacy is worth a thousand steps.
-