Programmer 7500/MAX_PROGRAMMERS.iso/PROGRAMS/UTILS/HAMRADIO/HAMBONE.ZIP/GENERAL.QST

Text File | 1990-09-15 | 47.9 KB | 1,677 lines

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     .   */..................................................
     .   To edit, add or delete questions with a text editor.
     .   follow the EXACT formula as shown.                 .
     .                                                      .
     .   ! + n = question #                                 .
     .   # = ANSWER                                         .
     .   % = END OF CLASS QUESTIONS                         .
     .   @ = CLASS OF LICENSE                               .
     .                                                      .
     .   Keep answers short enough to fit in the HAMBONE    .
     .   window screen.                                     .
     .   */..................................................

!1: What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an Amateur Station
    on 10.14 MHz?

 A. 200 Watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 Watts DC input.
 C. 1500 Watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 Watts DC input.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!2: What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an Amateur Station
    on 3725 kHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 watts DC input.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!3: What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an Amateur Station
    on 7080 kHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 watts DC input.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!4: What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an Amateur Station
    on 24.95 MHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts PEP output.
 D. 2000 watts DC input.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!5: What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an Amateur Station
    transmitting on 21.150 MHz?

 A. 200 watts PEP output.
 B. 1000 watts DC input.
 C. 1500 watts DC input.
 D. 1500 watts PEP output.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!6: How must a General control operator at a Novice station make the
    station identification when transmitting on 7050 kHz?

 A. The control operator should identify the station with his or her
    call, followed by the word "Controlling" and the Novice call.
 B. The control operator should identify the station with his or her
    call, followed by the slant bar "/" and the Novice call.
 C. The control operator should identify the station with the Novice
    call, followed by the slant bar "/" and his or her call.
 D. The Novice Station should not be operated on 7050 kHz, even with a
    General class control operator.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL


!7: Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party traffic be
    transmitted to a foreign country by an Amateur Station?

 A. Under no circumstances.
 B. Only if the country has a third-party traffic agreement with the
    United States.
 C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class licensee.
 D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with the United
    states.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!8: What types of messages may be transmitted by an Amateur station to a
    foreign country for a third person?

 A. Third-party traffic involving material compensation, either tangible
    or intangible, direct or indirect, to a third party, a station
    licensee, a control operator, or any other person.
 B. Third-party traffic consisting of business communications on behalf
    of any party.
 C. Only third-party traffic which does not involve material compensation
    of any kind, and is not business communication of any type.
 D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third
    parties.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!9: What additional limitations apply to third-party messages
     transmitted to foreign countries?

 A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to Amateurs in countries
    with which the US has a third-party traffic agreement.
 B. Third-party messages may only be sent to Amateurs in ITU Region 1.
 C. Third-party messages may only be sent to Amateurs in ITU Region 3.
 D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in English.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!10: Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station
     transmitting on 29.64 MHz. repeat the 146.34 MHz. signals of an
     Amateur Station with a Technician control operator?

 A. Under no circumstances.
 B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz. is operating under a SPECIAL
    TEMPORARY AUTHORIZATION allowing such retransmission?
 C. Only during an FCC declared GENERAL STATE OF COMMUNICATIONS
    EMERGENCY.
 D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter is
    authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!11: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     160 meter band?

 A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only.
 B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only.
 C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only.
 D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!12: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     75/80 meter band?

 A. 3525 to 3570 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only.
 B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only.
 C. 3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only.
 D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!13: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     40 meter band?

 A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only.
 B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only.
 C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only.
 D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!14: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     30 meter band?

 A. 10,100 to 10, 150 kHz only.
 B. 10,105 to 10, 150 kHz only.
 C. 10,125 to 10, 150 kHz only.
 D. 10,100 to 10, 125 kHz only.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!15: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     20 meter band?

 A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only.
 B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only.
 C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only.
 D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!16: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     15 meter band?

 A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only.
 B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only.
 C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only.
 D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!17: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     12 meter band?

 A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only.
 B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only.
 C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only.
 D. 24,790 to 24,990 KHz only.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!18: What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the
     10 meter band?

 A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only.
 B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only.
 C. 28,100 to 29,700 kHz only.
 D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!19: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820 kHz.?

 A. Extra only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!20: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950 Khz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice only.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!21: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230 kHz.?

 A. Extra only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!22: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra only.
 D. Technician only.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!23: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 C. Extra, Advanced only.
 D. Extra only.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!24: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425 MHz.?

 A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only.
 B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. Extra, Advanced only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!25: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895 MHz.?

 A. Extra only.
 B. Extra, Advanced only.
 C. Extra, Advanced, General only.
 D. None.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!26: Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616 MHZ.?

 A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only.
 B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only.
 C. General, Advanced, Extra only.
 D. Advanced, Extra only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!27: On what frequencies within the 160 meter band may emission A3E be
     transmitted?

 A. 1800 - 2000 kHz. only.
 B. 1800 - 1900 kHz. only.
 C. 1900 - 2000 kHz. only.
 D. 1825 - 1950 kHz. only.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!28: On what frequencies within the 80 meter band may emission A1A be
     transmitted?

 A. 3500 - 3750 kHz only.
 B. 3700 - 3750 kHz only.
 C. 3775 - 4000 kHz only.
 D. 3890 - 4000 kHz only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!29: On what frequencies within the 40 meter band may emission A3F be
     transmitted?

 A. 7225 - 7300 kHz only.
 B. 7000 - 7300 kHz only.
 C. 7100 - 7150 kHz only.
 D. 7150 - 7300 kHz only.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!30: On what frequencies within the 30 meter band may emission F1B be
     transmitted?

 A. 10.140 - 10.150 MHz.
 B. 10.125 - 10.150 MHz.
 C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz.
 D. 10.100 - 10.125 MHz.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!31: On what frequencies within the 20 meter band may emission A3C be
     transmitted?

 A. 14,200 - 14,300 kHz only.
 B. 14,150 - 14,350 kHz only.
 C. 14,025 - 14,150 kHz only.
 D. 14.150 - 14.300 MHz only.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL


!32: On what frequencies within the 15 meter band may emission F3C be
     transmitted?

 A. 21,200 - 21,300 kHz only.
 B. 21,350 - 21,450 kHz only.
 C. 21,200 - 21,450 kHz only.
 D. 21,100 - 21,200 kHz only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!33: On what frequencies within the 12 meter band may emission J3E be
     transmitted?

 A. 24,890 - 24,990 kHz only.
 B. 24.890 - 24.930 kHz only.
 C. 24.930 - 24.990 kHz only.
 D. J3E is not permitted in this band.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!34: On what frequencies within the 10 meter band may emission A3E be
     transmitted?

 A. 28,000 - 28,300 kHz only.
 B. 29,000 - 29,700 kHz only.
 C. 28,300 - 29,700 kHz only.
 D. 28,000 - 29,000 kHz only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!35: What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B
     transmission below 28 MHz?

 A. 56 kilobaud.
 B. 19.6 kilobaud.
 C. 1200 baud.
 D. 300 baud.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!36: Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station engage in
     some form of broadcasting?

 A. During severe storms, Amateurs may broadcast weather information for
    people with scanners.
 B. Under no circumstances.
 C. If power levels under one watt are used, Amateur Stations may
    broadcast bulletins, but not music.
 D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!37: What protection, if any, is afforded an Amateur Station transmission
     against retransmission by a Broadcast Station?

 A. No protection whatsoever.
 B. The broadcaster must secure permission for the retransmission from
    the control operator of the Amateur Station.
 C. The broadcaster must petition the FCC for retransmission rights 30
    days in advance.
 D. Retransmission may only be made during a declared emergency.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!38: Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a Violin be
     transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions.
 B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission.
 C. Only above 1215 MHz.
 D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!39: Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a Piano be
     transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission.
 B. Only above 1215 MHz.
 C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service.
 D. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL


!40: Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a Harmonica be
     transmitted by an Amateur Station?

 A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions.
 B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service.
 C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission.
 D. Only above 1215 MHz.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!41: Under what circumstances, if any, may an Amateur Station transmit a
     message in secret codes in order to obscure the meaning!

 A. Only above 450 Mhz.
 B. Only on Field Day.
 C. Never.
 D. Only during a declared communications emergency.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!42: What types of abbreviations or signals are not considered codes or
     ciphers?

 A. Abbreviations and signals certified by the ARRL.
 B. Abbreviations and signals established by regulation or custom and
    usage and whose intent is to facilitate communication and not to
    obscure meaning.
 C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure the meaning
    of the message to FCC monitoring stations.
 D. Only "10 Codes" are permitted.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!43: When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in domestic Amateur
     radiocommunications?

 A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances.
 B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ARRL sponsored contests.
 C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
    emergencies.
 D. Codes and ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!44: When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in international
     Amateur radiocommunications?

 A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances.
 B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during IUT sponsored DX contests.
 C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during internationally declared
    emergencies.
 D. Codes and ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above 2.3 GHz.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL


!45: What is meant by the term FLATTOPPING in an emission J3E
transmission?

 A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current.
 B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted.
 C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive.
 D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!46: How should the audio gain control be adjusted on an emission J3E
     transmitter?

 A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks.
 B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks.
 C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks.
 D. For a dip in plate current.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!47: In what segment of the 20 meter band do most emission F1B
     transmissions take place?

 A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz.
 B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz.
 C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz.
 D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!48: In what segment of the 80 meter band do most emission F1B
     transmissions take place?

 A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz.
 B. 3500 to 3525 kHz.
 C. 3700 to 3750 kHz.
 D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!49: What is meant by the term BAUDOT?

 A. Baudot is a 7 bit code, with start, stop and parity bits.
 B. Baudot is a 7 bit code in which each character has four mark and
    three space bits.
 C. Baudot is a 5 bit code, with additional start and stop bits.
 D. Baudot is a 6 bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!50: What is meant by the term ASCII?

 A. ASCII is a 7 bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits.
 B. ASCII is a 7 bit code in which each character has four mark and three
    space bits.
 C. ASCII is a 5 bit code, with additional start and stop bits.
 D. ASCII is a 5 bit code in which each character has three mark and two
    space bits.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!51: What is the most common frequency shift for emission F1B
     transmissions in the Amateur HF bands?

 A. 85 Hz.
 B. 170 Hz.
 C. 425 Hz.
 D. 850 Hz.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!52: What are the two subset modes of AMTOR?

 A. A Mark of 2125 Hz. and a Space of 2295 Hz.
 B. Baudot and ASCII.
 C. ARQ and FEC.
 D. USB and LSB.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!53: What is the meaning of the term ARQ?

 A. Automatic Repeater Queue.
 B. Automatic Receiver Quieting.
 C. Automatically Resend Quickly.
 D. Automatic Repeat Request.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!54: What is the meaning of the term FEC?

 A. Frame Error Check.
 B. Forward Error Correction.
 C. Frequency Envelope Control.
 D. Frequency Encoded Connection.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!55: What is meant by a BANDPLAN?

 A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for operating within a
    specific portion of radio spectrum.
 B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and Regulations.
 C. A schedule for operating devised by the Federal Communications
    Commission.
 D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use to use a band during a
    contest.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!56: What is the usual Input/Output frequency separation for a 10 meter
     station in repeater operation?

 A. 100 kHz.
 B. 600 kHz.
 C. 1.6 MHz.
 D. 170 Hz.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!57: What is meant by VOX TRANSMITTER CONTROL?

 A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to turn on automatically when
    the operator speaks into the microphone.
 B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter when the
    operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony.
 C. Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning in a
    transceiver.
 D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient noise level.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!58: What is the common name for the circuit that causes a transmitter to
     automatically transmit when a person speaks into the microphone?

 A. VXO.
 B. VOX.
 C. VCO.
 D. VFO.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!59: What is meant by the term FULL BREAK-IN TELEGRAPHY?

 A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the breaking
    station sends the Morse Code symbol BK.
 B  A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only automatic
    keyers can be used.
 C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the operator must
    activate the send/receive switch after completing a transmission.
 D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the receiver is
    sensitive to incoming signal between transmitted key pulses.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!60: What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy
     capability?

 A. QSB.
 B. QSF.
 C. QSK.
 D. QSV.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!61: When selecting an emission A1A transmitting frequency, what is the
     minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be
     allowed in order to minimize interference?

 A. 5 to 50 Hz.
 B. 150 to 500 Hz.
 C. Approximately 3 kHz.
 D. Approximately 6 kHz.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!62: When selecting an emission J3E transmitting frequency, what is the
     minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be
     allowed in order to minimize interference?

 A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers.
 B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers.
 C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers.
 D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!63: When selecting an F1B RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the
     minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be
     allowed in order to minimize interference?

 A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center.
 B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center.
 C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center.
 D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!64: What is an AZIMUTHAL map?

 A. A map projection that is always centered on the North Pole.
 B. A map projection, centered on a particular location, that determines
    the shortest path between two points on the surface of the earth.
 C. A map that shows the angle at which an Amateur satellite crosses the
    equator.
 D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an Amateur
    satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!65: How can an Azimuthal map be helpful in conducting international HF
     radiocommunications?

 A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the shortest path
    to a DX station.
 B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting antenna
    height to conduct the desired communication.
 C. It is used to determine the angle at which an Amateur satellite cross
    the equator.
 D. It is used to determine the Maximum Usable Frequency (muf).
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!66: What is the most useful type of map when orienting a directional
     antenna toward a station 5,000 miles distant?

 A. Azimuthal.
 B. Mercator.
 C. Polar projection.
 D. Topographical.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!67: A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another
     station is generally oriented how many degrees from the short-path
     heading?

 A. 45 degrees.
 B. 90 degrees.
 C. 180 degrees.
 D. 270 degrees.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!68: What is the short-path heading to Antarctica?

 A. Approximately 0 degrees.
 B. Approximately 90 degrees.
 C. Approximately 180 degrees.
 D. Approximately 270 degrees.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!69: When permitted, transmissions to Amateur Stations in another country
     must be limited to only what type of messages?

 A. Messages of any type are permitted.
 B. Messages that compete with public telecommunications services.
 C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character of
    relative unimportance.
 D. Such transmissions are never permitted.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!70: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the
     continental United States?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!71: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Alaska?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!72: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is American
     Samoa?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!73: For uniformity in international radiocommunication, what time
     measurement standard should Amateur Operators worldwide use?

 A. Eastern Standard Time.
 B. Uniform Calibrated Time.
 C. Universal Coordinated Time.
 D. Universal Time Control.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!74: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Hawaii?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. region 4.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!75: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the
     Commonwealth of Northern Marinas Islands?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!76: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Guam?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. Region 4.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!77: In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Wake
     Island?

 A. Region 1.
 B. Region 2.
 C. Region 3.
 D. region 4.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!78: What is the AMATEUR AUXILIARY to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau?

 A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for
    rules violations.
 B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing examinations.
 C. Amateur who conduct frequency coordination for Amateur VHF repeaters.
 D. Amateur who determine height above average terrain measurements for
    repeater installations.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!79: What are the objectives of the AMATEUR AUXILIARY to the FCC's Field
     Operations Bureau?

 A. To enforce Amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules.
 B. To foster Amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules.
 C. To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the repeater
    subbands.
 D. To provide emergency and public safety communications.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!80: What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that can
     normally be covered in one hop using the F2 layer?

 A. Approximately 180 miles.
 B. Approximately 1200 miles.
 C. Approximately 2500 miles.
 D. No distance. This layer does not support radiocommunication.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!81: What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that can be
     covered in one hop using the E layer?

 A. Approximately 180 miles.
 B. Approximately 1200 miles.
 C. Approximately 2500 miles.
 D. No distance. This layer does not support radiocommunication.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!82: What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E Layer?

 A. 45 miles.
 B. 70 miles.
 C. 200 miles.
 D. 1200 miles.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!83: During what part of the day, and in what season of the year can the
     F2 Layer be expected to reach its maximum height?

 A. At Noon during the Summer.
 B. At Midnight during the Summer.
 C. At Dusk in the Spring and Fall
 D. At Noon during the Winter.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!84: What is the CRITICAL ANGLE, as used in radio wave propagation?

 A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave to Earth
    under specific Ionospheric conditions.
 B. The compass direction of the desired DX station from your location.
 C. The 180 degree inverted compass direction of the desired DX station
    from your location.
 D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave to Earth
    during specific Ionospheric conditions.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!85: What is the main reason that the 160, 80 and 40 meter Amateur Bands
     can be used only for short distance communications during daylight
     hours?

 A. Because of a lack of activity.
 B. Because of Auroral propagation.
 C. Because of D Layer absorption.
 D. Because of magnetic flux.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!86: What is the principal reason that the 160 through 40 meter bands are
     useful only for short distance communications during daylight hours?

 A. F Layer bending.
 B. Gamma radiation.
 C. D Layer absorption.
 D. Tropospheric ducting.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!87: If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to Africa
     is 22 MHz., which band should offer the best chance for a successful
     contact?

 A. 10 meters.
 B. 15 meters.
 C. 20 meters.
 D. 40 meters.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!88: If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to West
     Germany is 17 MHz., which band should offer the best chance for a
     successful contact?

 A. 80 meters.
 B. 40 meters.
 C. 20 meters.
 D. 2 meters.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!89: Over what periods of time do Sudden Ionospheric Disturbances
     normally last?

 A. The entire day.
 B. A few minutes to a few hours.
 C. A few hours to a few days.
 D. Approximately one week.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!90: What can be done at an amateur station to continue
     radiocommunications during a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance?

 A. Try a higher frequency.
 B. Try the other sideband.
 C. Try a different antenna polarization.
 D. Try a different frequency shift.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!91: What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the
     daylight Ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

 A. Disrupts higher latitude paths more than lower latitude paths.
 B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than those on higher
    frequencies.
 C. Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
    communications.
 D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are affected.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!92: How long does it take a Solar Disturbance that increases the Sun's
     ultraviolet radiation to cause Ionospheric Disturbances on Earth?

 A. Instantaneously.
 B. 1.5 Seconds.
 C. 8 Minutes.
 D. 20 to 40 Hours.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!93: Sudden Ionospheric Disturbances occur as a result of radio wave
     absorption in which layer of the Ionosphere?

 A. D layer.
 B. E layer.
 C. F1 layer.
 D. F2 layer.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!94: What is a characteristic of BACKSCATTER signals?

 A. High intelligibility.
 B. A wavering sound.
 C. Reversed modulation.
 D. Reversed sidebands.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!95: What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted?

 A. Auroral activity and changes in the Earth's magnetic field.
 B. The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal's
    clarity.
 C. The Earth's E Layer at the point of radio wave refraction.
 D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to the
    transmitter skip zone through several radio wave paths.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!96: What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows a signal
     to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but
     too near for normal sky wave propagation.

 A. Ground wave.
 B. Scatter.
 C. Sporadic E skip.
 D. Short path skip.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!97: When does Ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands most often
     occur?

 A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum.
 B. At night.
 C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined.
 D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!98: What is SOLAR FLUX?

 A. The density of the Sun's magnetic field.
 B. The radio energy emitted by the sun.
 C. The number of sunspots on the side of the Sun facing the Earth.
 D. A measure of the tilt of the Earth's Ionosphere on the side toward
    the Sun.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!99: What is the SOLAR FLUX INDEX?

 A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity.
 B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily readings with
    results from the last six months.
 C. Another name for the American Sunspot Number.
 D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!100: What is a timely indicator of solar activity?

 A. The 2300 MHz. Solar Flux Index.
 B. The Mean Canadian Sunspot Number.
 C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time.
 D. Van Allen Radiation measurements taken at Boulder, Colorado.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!101: What type of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band is
      indicated by a Solar Flux Index of 60 to 70?

 A. Unpredictable Ionospheric propagation.
 B. No Ionospheric propagation is possible.
 C. Excellent Ionospheric propagation.
 D. Poor Ionospheric propagation.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!102: A Solar Flux Index of 90 to 110 indicates what type of propagation
      conditions on the 15 meter band?

 A. Poor Ionospheric propagation.
 B. No Ionospheric propagation is possible.
 C. Unpredictable Ionospheric propagation.
 D. Good Ionospheric propagation.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!103: A Solar Flux Index of greater than 120 would indicate what type of
      propagation conditions of the 10 meter band?

 A. Good Ionospheric propagation.
 B. Poor Ionospheric propagation.
 C. No Ionospheric propagation is possible.
 D. Unpredictable Ionospheric propagation.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!104: For widespread long distance openings on the 6 meter band, what
      Solar Flux values would be required?

 A. Less than 50.
 B. Approximately 75.
 C. Greater than 100.
 D. Greater than 250.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!105: If the MUF is high and HF radiocommunications are generally good
      for several days, a similar condition can usually be expected how
      many days later?

 A.  7 days.
 B. 14 days.
 C. 28 days.
 D. 90 days.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!106: What is a GEOMAGNETIC DISTURBANCE?

 A. A sudden drop in the Solar Flux Index.
 B. A shifting of the Earth's magnetic pole.
 C. Ripples in the Ionosphere.
 D. A dramatic change in the Earth's magnetic field over a short period
    of time.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!107: Which latitude paths are more susceptible to Geomagnetic
      Disturbances?

 A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude.
 B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude.
 C. Equatorial paths.
 D. All paths are affected equally.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!108: What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on
      radiocommunications?

 A. Improved high latitude HF communications.
 B. Degraded high latitude HF communications.
 C. Improved ground wave propagation.
 D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!109: How long does it take a Solar Disturbance that increases the Sun's
      radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave propagation on
      Earth?

 A. The effect is instantaneous.
 B. 1.5 Seconds.
 C. 8 Minutes.
 D. 20 to 40 Hours.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL


!110: Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be attached to
      fuses in a 234 VAC primary (Single Phase) power supply?

 A. Only the "Hot" (Black and Red) wires.
 B. Only the "Neutral" (White) wire.
 C. Only the "Ground" (Bare) wire.
 D. All wires.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!111: What size wire is normally used on a 15 Ampere, 117 VAC household
      lighting circuit?

 A. AWG No. 14.
 B. AWG No. 16.
 C. AWG No. 18.
 D. AWG No. 22.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!112: What size wire is normally used on a 20 Ampere, 117 VAC household
      appliance circuit?

 A. AWG No. 20.
 B. AWG No. 16.
 C. AWG No. 14.
 D. AWG No. 12.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!113: What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the
      transmitter is keyed?

 A. RF in the AC pole transformer.
 B. High resistance in the key contacts.
 C. A drop in AC line voltage.
 D. The line cord is wired incorrectly.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!114: What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household appliance
      circuit?

 A. Maximum of 100 amperes.
 B. Maximum of 60 amperes.
 C. Maximum of 30 amperes.
 D. Maximum of 20 amperes.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!115: What safety feature is provided by a BLEEDER RESISTOR in a power
      supply.

 A. It improves voltage regulation.
 B. It discharges the filter capacitors.
 C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils.
 D. It eliminates Ground Loop current.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!116: What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity
      of an emission J3E transmitter while viewing the output with an
      oscilloscope?

 A. Normal speech.
 B. An audio frequency sine wave.
 C. Two audio frequency sine waves.
 D. An audio frequency square wave.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!117: To test the amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter with
      an oscilloscope, what should the audio input to the transmitter be?

 A. Normal speech.
 B. An audio frequency sine wave.
 C. Two audio frequency sine waves.
 D. An audio frequency square wave.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL


!118: What audio frequencies are used in a TWO TONE TEST of the linearity
      of an emission J3E transmitter?

 A. 20 Hz. and 20,000 Hz. tones must be used.
 B. 1200 Hz. and 2400 Hz. tones must be used.
 C. Any two audio tones may be used, if they are harmonically related.
 D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
    transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!119: What can be determined by making a TWO TONE TEST using an
      oscilloscope?

 A. The percent of frequency modulation.
 B. The percent of carrier phase shift.
 C. The frequency deviation.
 D. The amplifier linearity.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!120: How can the Grid Current meter in a power amplifier be used as a
      neutralizing indicator?

 A. Tune for minimum change in Grid Current as the output circuit is
    changed.
 B. Tune for maximum change in Grid Current as the output circuit is
    changed.
 C. Tune for minimum grid current.
 D. Tune for maximum grid current.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!121: Why is Neutralization in some Vacuum Tube amplifiers necessary?

 A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned circuits.
 B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage.
 C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas.
 D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode
    capacitance.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!122: How is Neutralization of an RF Amplifier accomplished?

 A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input on
    alternate half cycles.
 B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted
    360 degrees out of phase.
 C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted
    180 degrees out of phase.
 D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input with a
    proper DC bias.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL


!123: What purpose does a neutralization circuit serve in an RF
      Amplifier?

 A. It controls differential gain.
 B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback.
 C. It eliminates circulating currents.
 D. It reduces incidental grid modulation.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!124: What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a
      transmitter?

 A. To limit the modulation index.
 B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations.
 C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods.
 D. To keep the carrier on frequency.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!125: How can the PEP Output of a transmitter be determined with an
      oscilloscope?

 A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
    oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(Rl).
 B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
    oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)]/Rl.
 C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
    oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(Rl).
 D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an
    oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)]/Rl.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!126: What is the Output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope
      shows 200 Volts Peak to Peak across a 50 Ohm resistor connected to
      the transmitter output terminals?

 A.  100 watts.
 B.  200 watts.
 C.  400 watts.
 D. 1000 watts.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!127: What is the Output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope
      shows 500 Volts Peak to Peak across a 50 Ohm resistor connected to
      the transmitter output terminals?

 A.  500 watts.
 B.  625 watts.
 C. 1250 watts.
 D. 2500 watts.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!128: What is the output PEP from a N0N transmitter when an average
      reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output terminals
      indicates 1060 watts?

 A. 530 watts.
 B. 1060 watts.
 C. 1500 watts.
 D. 2120 watts.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!129: What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical
      channel amplifiers?

 A. The ohmmeter.
 B. The signal generator.
 C. The ammeter.
 D. The oscilloscope.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!130: What types of signals does an oscilloscope measure?

 A. Any time dependent signal within the bandwith capability of the
    instrument.
 B. Blinker light signals from ocean going vessels.
 C. International nautical flag signals.
 D. Signals created by aeronautical flares.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!131: What is an OSCILLOSCOPE?

 A. An instrument that displays radiation resistance of an antenna.
 B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line.
 C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit.
 D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!132: What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope CRT?

 A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the CRT.
 B. Too high an intensity setting.
 C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier.
 D. Improperly adjusted focus.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!133: What is a SIGNAL TRACER?

 A. A Directional Finding antenna.
 B. An aid for following schematic diagrams.
 C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit.
 D. A device for drawing signal waveforms.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!134: How is a signal tracer used?

 A. To detect the presence of a signal in the various stage of a
    receiver.
 B. To locate a source of interference.
 C. To trace the path of a radio signal through the Ionosphere.
 D. To draw a wave form on paper.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!135: What is a signal tracer normally used for?

 A. To identify the source of radio transmissions.
 B. To make exact replicas of signals.
 C. To give a visual indication of standing waves on open-wire feedlines.
 D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!136: What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate Radio
      Frequency Interference to home entertainment systems?

 A. Install bypass inductors.
 B. Install bypass capacitors.
 C. Install metal oxide varistors.
 D. Install bypass resistors.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!137: What should be done when a properly operating Amateur Radio Station
      is the source of interference to a nearby telephone?

 A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment.
 B. Contacting a phone service representative about installing RFI
    filters.
 C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference.
 D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!138: What type of sound would be heard from a public address system when
      audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission J3E
      transmitter?

 A. A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's carrier is on the
    air.
 B. On and Off humming or clicking.
 C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals.
 D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!139: How can the possibility of Audio Rectification occurring be
      minimized?

 A. By using a solid state transmitter.
 B. By using CW emission only.
 C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded.
 D. By using AM emission only.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!140: What type of sound would be heard from a public address system when
      audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission A3E
      transmitter?

 A. Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter signals.
 B. On and Off humming or clicking.
 C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals.
 D. Extremely loud, slightly distorted speech from the transmitter's
    signals.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!141: What is the reason for using a Speech Processor with an emission
      J3E transmitter?

 A. A properly adjusted Speech processor reduces average transmitter
    power requirements.
 B. A properly adjusted Speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup
    from the microphone.
 C. A properly adjusted Speech processor improves voice frequency
    fidelity.
 D. A properly adjusted Speech processor improves signal intelligibility
    at the receiver.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!142: When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech processor
      increase the PEP output?

 A. Yes.
 B. No.
 C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output.
 D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!143: Under which band conditions should a Speech Processor not be used?

 A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band.
 B. When the band is crowded.
 C. When the frequency in use is clear.
 D. When the sunspot count is relatively high.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!144: What effect can result from using a Speech Processor with an
      emission J3E transmitter?

 A. A properly adjusted Speech processor reduces average transmitter
    power requirements.
 B. A properly adjusted Speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup
    from the microphone.
 C. A properly adjusted Speech processor improves voice frequency
    fidelity.
 D. A properly adjusted Speech processor improves signal intelligibility
    at the receiver.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!145: At what point in the coaxial line should an electronic T-R switch
      be installed?

 A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter.
 B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna.
 C. Between the antenna and feed point.
 D. Right after the low-pass filter.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!146: Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a mechanical one?

 A. Greater receiver sensitivity.
 B. Circuit simplicity.
 C. Higher operation speed.
 D. Cleaner output signals.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!147: What station accessory facilitates QSK operation?

 A. Oscilloscope.
 B. Audio CW filter.
 C. Antenna relay.
 D. Electronic T/R switch.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!148: What is an antenna NOISE BRIDGE?

 A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an antenna or other
    electrical circuit.
 B. An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna or other
    electrical circuit.
 C. An instrument for measuring solar flux.
 D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!149: How is an antenna NOISE BRIDGE used?

 A. It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise is read
    directly.
 B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for
    minimum SWR.
 C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance and tuned
    for minimum noise.
 D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and adjusted for
    minimum SWR.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!150: How does the emitted waveform from a properly adjusted emission J3E
      transmitter appear on a monitoring oscilloscope?

 A. A vertical line.
 B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform.
 C. A square wave.
 D. Two loops at right angles.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!151: What is the best instrument for checking transmitted signal quality
      from an emissions A1A/J3E transmitter?

 A. A monitor oscilloscope.
 B. A field strength meter.
 C. A sidetone monitor.
 D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!152: What is a MONITORING OSCILLOSCOPE?

 A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals.
 B. A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted signal.
 C. A device used to display SSTV signals.
 D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!153: How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station in order to
      check the quality of the transmitted signal?

 A. Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical deflection plates of
    the oscilloscope.
 B. Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope vertical
    input.
 C. Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope vertical
    input.
 D. Connect the transmitter output to the vertical deflection plates of
    the oscilloscope.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!154: What is the most appropriate instrument to use when determining
      antenna horizontal radiation patterns?

 A. A field strength meter.
 B. A grid-dip meter.
 C. A wave meter.
 D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!155: What is a FIELD-STRENGTH METER?

 A. A device for determining the Standing Wave Ratio on a transmission
    line.
 B. A device for checking modulation on the output of a transmitter.
 C. A device for monitoring relative RF output.
 D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!156: What is a simple instrument that can be useful for monitoring
      relative rf output during antenna and transmitter adjustments?

 A. A field-strength meter.
 B. An antenna noise bridge.
 C. A multimeter.
 D. A Transmatch.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!157: When the power output from a transmitter is increased by four times
      how should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver change?

 A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit.
 B. Increase by approximately one S-unit.
 C. Increase by approximately four S-units.
 D. Decrease by approximately four S-units.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!158: How many times must the power output from a transmitter change to
      raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S-8 to S-9?

 A. Approximately 2 times.
 B. Approximately 3 times.
 C. Approximately 4 times.
 D. Approximately 5 times.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL
% END FILE GO TO GENERAL2