Programmer 7500/MAX_PROGRAMMERS.iso/PROGRAMS/UTILS/HAMRADIO/HAMBONE.ZIP/GENERAL2.QST

Text File | 1990-09-15 | 38.0 KB | 1,345 lines

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    ▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀▀          TEST QUESTION LIBRARY
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      .  */..................................................
      .  To edit, add or delete questions with a text editor.
      .
      .  follow the EXACT formula as shown.                 .
      .                                                     .
      .  ! + n = question #                                 .
      .  # = ANSWER                                         .
      .  % = END OF CLASS QUESTIONS                         .
      .  @ = CLASS OF LICENSE                               .
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      .  Keep answers short enough to fit in the HAMBONE    .
      .  window screen.                                     .
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!159: What is meant by the term IMPEDANCE?

 A. The electrical charge stored in a Capacitor.
 B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only
    Capacitance
 C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit.
 D. The force of repulsion presented to an electric field with the
    same charge.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!160: What is the opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing
      both resistance and reactance called?

 A. Ohm.
 B. Joule.
 C. Impedance.
 D. Watt.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!161: What is meant by the term REACTANCE?

 A. Opposition to DC caused by Resistors.
 B. Opposition to AC caused by Inductors and Capacitors.
 C. A property of ideal Resistors in AC circuits.
 D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an Inductor is
    de-energized.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!162: What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by Inductor
      called?

 A. Resistance.
 B. Reluctance.
 C. Admittance.
 D. Reactance.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!163: What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by Capacitor
      called?

 A. Resistance.
 B. Reluctance.
 C. Admittance.
 D. Reactance.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!164: How does a coil react to AC?

 A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
 decreases.
 B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
    increases.
 C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases.
 D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
    increases.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!165: How does a Capacitor react to AC?

 A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
 decreases.
 B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
 increases.
 C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also
    increases.
 D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!166: When will a power source deliver maximum output?

 A. When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the
 source.
 B. When the SWR has reached a maximum value.
 C. When the power supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current.
 D. When air wound transformers are used instead of iron core
 transformers.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!167: What is meant by IMPEDANCE MATCHING?

 A. To make the load impedance much greater than the source impedance.
 B. To make the load impedance much less than the source impedance.
 C. To use a Balun at the antenna feed point.
 D. To make the load impedance equal to the source impedance.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!168: What occurs when the Impedance of an electrical load is equal to
      the internal impedance of the power source?

 A. The source delivers minimum power to the load.
 B. There will be a high SWR condition.
 C. No current can flow through the circuit.
 D. The source delivers maximum power to the load.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!169: Why is IMPEDANCE MATCHING important in radio work?

 A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load.
 B. So the load can draw minimum power from the source.
 C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the
 circuit.
 D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!170: What is the unit measurement of Reactance?

 A. Mho.
 B. Ohm.
 C. Ampere.
 D. Siemen.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!171: What is the unit measurement of Impedance?

 A. Ohm.
 B. Volt.
 C. Ampere.
 D. Watt.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!172: What is a BEL?

 A. The basic unit used to describe a change in power levels.
 B. The basic unit used to describe a change in inductances.
 C. The basic unit used to describe a change in capacitances
 D. The basic unit used to describe a change in resistances.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!173: What is a DECIBEL.

 A. A unit used to describe a change in power levels equal to 0.1 bel.
 B. A unit used to describe a change in power levels equal to 0.01 bel.
 C. A unit used to describe a change in power levels equal to 10 bels.
 D. A unit used to describe a change in power levels equal to 100 bels.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!174: Under ideal conditions, a barely detectable change in loudness is
      approximately how many dB?

 A. 12 dB.
 B.  6 dB.
 C.  3 dB.
 D.  1 dB.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!175: A two times increase in power results in a change of how may dB?

 A. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 1 dB
    higher.
 B. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 3 dB
    higher.
 C. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 6 dB
    higher.
 D. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 12 dB
    higher.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!176: An increase of 6 dB results from raising the power by how may
times?

 A. Multiply the original power by 1.5 to get the new power.
 B. Multiply the original power by 2 to get the new power.
 C. Multiply the original power by 3 to get the new power.
 D. Multiply the original power by 4 to get the new power.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!177: A decrease of 3 dB results from lowering the power by how may
times?

 A. Divide the original power by 1.5 to get the new power.
 B. Divide the original power by 2 to get the new power.
 C. Divide the original power by 3 to get the new power.
 D. Divide the original power by 4 to get the new power.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!178: A signal strength report is "10dB over S9". If the transmitter
      power is reduce from 1500 Watts to 150 watts, what should be the
      new signal strength report?

 A. S5
 B. S7
 C. S9
 D. S9 plus 5dB
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!179: A signal strength report is "20dB over S9". If the transmitter
      power is reduce from 1500 Watts to 150 watts, what should be the
      new signal strength report?

 A. S5
 B. S7
 C. S9
 D. S9 plus 10dB
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!180: A signal strength report is "20dB over S9". If the transmitter
      power is reduced from 1500 Watts to 15 watts, what should be the
      new signal strength report?

 A. S5
 B. S7
 C. S9
 D. S9 plus 5dB
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!181: If a 1.0 ampere current source is connected to two parallel
      connected 10 ohm Resistors, how much current passes through each
      Resistor?

 A. 10 amperes.
 B. 2 amperes.
 C. 1 ampere.
 D. 0.5 ampere.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!182: In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch
      Resistors, what relationship does the total current have to the
      branch currents?

 A. The total equals the average of the branch current in each Resistor.
 B. The total equals the sum of the branch currents in each Resistor.
 C. The total decreases as more parallel Resistors are added to the
 circuit.
 D. The total is calculated by adding the voltage drops across each
 Resistor and multiplying the sum by the total number of all circuit
 Resistors.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!183: How many Watts of electrical power are being dissipated when a
      400 VDC power source supplies an 800 Ohm load?

 A. 0.5 Watt is dissipated.
 B. 200 Watts are dissipated.
 C. 400 Watts are dissipated.
 D. 320,000 Watts are dissipated.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!184: How many Watts of electrical power are being consumed by a 12 VDC
      pilot light which draw 0.2 Amperes?

 A. 60 watts.
 B. 24 watts.
 C. 6 watts.
 D. 2.4 watts.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!185: How many Watts are being dissipated when 7.0 miliamperes flows
      through 1.25 Kilohms?

 A. Approximately 61 milliwatts.
 B. Approximately 39 milliwatts.
 C. Approximately 11 milliwatts.
 D. Approximately 9 milliwatts.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!186: How is the total resistance calculated for several Resistors
      in series?

 A. The total resistance must be divided by the number of Resistors to
    ensure accurate measurement of resistance.
 B. The total resistance is always the lowest-rated resistance.
 C. The total resistance is found by adding the individual resistances
    together.
 D. The tolerance of each Resistor must be raised proportionally to the
    number of Resistors.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!187: What is the total resistance of two equal, parallel connected
      Resistors?

 A. Twice the sum of either resistance?
 B. The sum of the two resistances.
 C. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
    resistances.
 D. Half the resistance of either Resistor.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!188: What is the total inductance of two equal, parallel connected
      Inductors?

 A. Half the inductance of either Inductor, assuming no mutual
 inductance.
 B. Twice the inductance of either Inductor,assuming no mutual
 inductance.
 C. The sum of the two Inductances, assuming no mutual inductance.
 D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
    inductances.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!189: What is the total capacitance of two equal, parallel connected
      Capacitors?

 A. Half the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 B. Twice the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 C. The value of either Capacitor.
 D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
    capacitances.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!190: What is the total resistance of two equal, series connected
      Resistors?

 A. Half the resistance of either Resistor.
 B. Twice the resistance of either Resistor.
 C. The value of either Resistor.
 D. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
    resistances.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!191: What is the total inductance of two equal, series connected
      Inductors?

 A. Half the inductance of either Inductor, assuming no mutual coupling.
 B. Twice the inductance of either Inductor,assuming no mutual coupling.
 C. The value of either Inductor, assuming no mutual coupling.
 D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
    inductances.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!192: What is the total capacitance of two equal, series connected
      Capacitors?

 A. Half the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 B. Twice the capacitance of either Capacitor.
 C. The value of either Capacitor.
 D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the exact
    capacitances.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!193: What is the voltage across a 500 turn secondary winding in a
      transformer when the 2250 turn primary is connected to 117 VAC?

 A. 2369 volts.
 B. 526.5 volts
 C. 26 volts
 D. 5.8 volts
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!194: What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio
      amplifier having an output impedance of 200 ohms to a speaker
      having a load impedance of 10 ohms?

 A. 4.47 to 1.
 B. 14.14 to 1.
 C. 20 to 1.
 D. 400 to 1.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!195: What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio
      amplifier having an output impedance of 600 ohms to a speaker
      having a load impedance of 4 ohms?

 A. 12.2 to 1.
 B. 24.4 to 1.
 C. 150 to 1.
 D. 300 to 1.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!196: What is the impedance of a speaker which requires a transformer
      with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having an
      output impedance of 2000 Ohms?

 A. 576 ohms.
 B. 83.3 ohms.
 C. 7.0 ohms.
 D. 3.5 ohms.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!197: What is the voltage that would produce the same amount of heat over
      time in a resistive element as would an applied sine wave ac
      voltage?

 A. A DC voltage equal to the Peak To Peak value of the AC voltage.
 B. A DC voltage equal to the RMS value of the AC voltage.
 C. A DC voltage equal to the Average value of the AC voltage.
 D. A DC voltage equal to the Peak value of the AC voltage.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!198: What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave which has an RMS
      voltage of 117 volts?

 A. 82.7 volts.
 B. 165.5 volts.
 C. 183.9 volts.
 D. 330.9 volts.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!199: A sine wave of 17 Volts Peak is equivalent to how many Volts RMS?

 A. 8.5 volts.
 B. 12 volts.
 C. 24 volts.
 D. 34 volts.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL


!200: What is the effect of an increase in ambient temperature on the
      resistance of a carbon resistor?

 A. The resistance will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
    that the temperature increases.
 B. The resistance stays the same.
 C. The resistance change depends on the resistor's temperature
    coefficient rating.
 D. The resistance becomes time dependent.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!201: What type of capacitor is often used in power supplies to filter
      the rectified AC?

 A. Disc ceramic.
 B. Vacuum variable.
 C. Mica.
 D. Electrolytic.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!202: What kind of capacitors is used in power supply circuits to filter
      transient voltage spikes across the transformer secondary winding.

 A. High value.
 B. Trimmer.
 C. Vacuum variable.
 D. Suppressor.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!203: How may inductors become Self-Resonant?

 A. Through distributed electromagnetism.
 B. Through eddy currents.
 C. Through distributed capacitance.
 D. Through parasitic hysteresis.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!204: What circuit component can change 120 VAC to 400 VAC ?

 A. A transformer.
 B. A capacitor.
 C. A Diode.
 D. An SCR.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!205: What is the source of energy connected to in a transformer?

 A. To the secondary winding.
 B. To the primary winding.
 C. To the core.
 D. To the plates.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!206: When no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer,
      what is current in the primary winding called?

 A. Magnetizing current.
 B. Direct current.
 C. Excitation current.
 D. Stabilizing current.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!207: In what terms are the Primary and Secondary windings of a power
      transformer usually specified?

 A. Joules per Second.
 B. Peak Inverse Voltage.
 C. Coloumbs per Second
 D. Volts or Volt-Amperes.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!208: What is the PEAK INVERSE VOLTAGE rating of a power supply
rectifier?

 A. The highest transient voltage the diode will handle.
 B. 1.4 time the AC frequency?
 C. The maximum voltage to be applied in the non-conducting direction.
 D. 2.8 time the AC frequency.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!209: Why must silicon rectifier diodes be thermally protected?

 A. Because of their proximity to the power transformer.
 B. Because they will be destroyed if they become too hot.
 C. Because of their susceptibility to transient voltages.
 D. Because of their use in high-voltage applications.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!210: What are the two major ratings for silicon diodes rectifiers of
      the type used in power supply circuits which must not be exceeded?

 A. Peak Load Impedance;  Peak Voltage.
 B. Average Power;  Average Voltage.
 C. Capacitive Reactance;  Avalanche Voltage.
 D. Peak Inverse Voltage;  Average Forward Current.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL


!211: Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with power
      supply rectifier diodes?

 A. To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage spikes.
 B. To ensure that the Back Voltage across each diode is about the same.
 C. To smooth the output waveform.
 D. To decrease the output voltage.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!212: What function do capacitors serve when resistors and capacitors are
      connected in parallel with high voltage power supply rectifier
      diodes?

 A. They double or triple the output voltage.
 B. They block the alternating current.
 C. They protect those diodes that develop back resistance faster than
    other diodes.
 D. They regulate the output voltage.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!213: What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full wave rectifier
      connected to a resistive load.

 A. A steady DC voltage.
 B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input.
 C. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input.
 D. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!214: How many degrees of a cycle does a Half Wave rectifier utilize?

 A. 90 degrees.
 B. 180 degrees.
 C. 270 degrees.
 D. 360 degrees.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!215: How many degrees of a cycle does a Full Wave rectifier utilize?

 A. 90 degrees.
 B. 180 degrees.
 C. 270 degrees.
 D. 360 degrees.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!216: Where is a power supply Bleeder Resistor connected?

 A. Across the filter capacitor.
 B. Across the power supply input.
 C. Between the transformer primary and secondary.
 D. Across the inductor in the output filter.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!217: What components comprise a power supply filter network?

 A. Diodes.
 B. Transformers and Transistors.
 C. Quartz crystals.
 D. Capacitors and Inductors.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!218: What should be the Peak Inverse Voltage rating of the rectifier in
      a Half Wave Power supply?

 A. One quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!219: What should be the Peak Inverse Voltage rating of the rectifier in
      a Full Wave Power supply?

 A. One quarter to one half the normal peak output voltage of the power
    supply.
 B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply.
 D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!220: What should the impedance of a Low Pass Filter be as compared to
      the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

 A. Substantially higher.
 B. About the same.
 C. Substantially lower.
 D. Twice the transmission line impedance.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL


!221: What is the term for alteration of the Amplitude of an RF wave for
      the purpose of conveying information?

 A. Frequency Modulation.
 B. Phase Modulation.
 C. Amplitude Rectification.
 D. Amplitude Modulation.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!222: What is the term for altering the phase of an RF wave for the
      purpose of conveying information?

 A. Pulse Modulation.
 B. Phase Modulation.
 C. Phase Rectification.
 D. Amplitude Modulation.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!223: What is the term for alteration of the frequency of an RF wave
      for the purpose of conveying information?

 A. Phase Rectification.
 B. Frequency Rectification.
 C. Amplitude Modulation.
 D. Frequency modulation.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!224: In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope)
      of the radio frequency signal vary in accordance with the
      modulating AF?

 A. Frequency Shift Keying.
 B. Pulse Modulation.
 C. Frequency Modulation.
 D. Amplitude Modulation.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!225: What determines the spectrum space occupied by each group of
      sideband frequencies generated by a correctly operating emission
      A3E transmitter?

 A. The audio frequencies used to modulate the transmitter.
 B. The phase angle between the Audio and Radio Frequencies being mixed.
 C. The radio frequencies used in the transmitter's VFO.
 D. The CW keying speed.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!226: How much is the carrier suppressed in an emission J3E transmission.

 A. No more than 20 dB below peak output power.
 B. No more than 30 dB below peak output power.
 C. At least 40 dB below peak output power.
 D. At least 60 dB below peak output power.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!227: What is one advantage of carrier suppression in an emission A3E
      transmission?

 A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content.
 B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion.
 C. More power can be put into the sidebands.
 D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a Double Sideband Suppressed
    Carrier signal.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!228: Which one of the telephony emission popular with Amateurs occupies
      the narrowest band of frequencies?

 A. Single Sideband Emissions.
 B. Double Sideband Emissions.
 C. Phase Modulated Emissions.
 D. Frequency Modulated Emissions.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!229: Which emission type is produced by a telephony transmitter having a
      balanced modulator followed by a 2.5 kHz. bandpass filter?

 A. PM
 B. AM
 C. SSB
 D. FM
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!230: What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an
      RF power amplifier?

 A. Multiplex Modulation.
 B. Phase Modulation.
 C. Amplitude Modulation.
 D. Pulse modulation.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!231: What purpose does the carrier serve in an emission A3E
transmission?

 A. The carrier separates the sidebands so they don't cancel in the
    receiver.
 B. The carrier contains the modulation information.
 C. The carrier maintains symmetry of the sidebands to prevent
 distortion.
 D. The carrier serves as a reference signal for demodulation by an
 envelope detector.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!232: What signal component appears in the center of the frequency band
      of an emission A3E transmission?

 A. The lower sidebands.
 B. The subcarrier.
 C. The carrier.
 D. The pilot tone.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!233: What sidebands are generated by an emission A3E transmitter with a
      7250 kHz. carrier modulated less than 100% by an 800 Hz. pure
      Sine wave?

 A. 7250.8 kHz. and 7251.6 Khz.
 B. 7250.0 kHz. and 7250.8 Khz.
 C. 7249.2 kHz. and 7250.8 Khz.
 D. 7248.4 kHz. and 7249.2 Khz.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!234: How many times over the maximum deviation is the bandwith of an
      emission F3E transmission?

 A. 1.5 times.
 B. At least 2.
 C. At least 4.
 D. The bandwith cannot be determined without knowing the exact carrier
    and modulating frequencies involved.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!235: What is the total bandwith of an emission F3E transmission having
      5 kHz Deviation and 3 kHz. AF?

 A.  3 kHz.
 B.  5 kHz.
 C.  8 kHz.
 D. 16 kHz.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!236: What happens to the shape of the RF envelope, as viewed on an
      oscilloscope, of an emission A3E transmission?

 A. The amplitude of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
    to the modulating signal.
 B. The amplitude of the envelope remains constant.
 C. The brightness of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
    to the modulating signal.
 D. The frequency of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion
    to the modulating signal.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!237: What results when an emission J3E transmitter is overmodulated?

 A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects.
 B. The signal occupies less bandwith with poor high frequency response.
 C. The signal has higher fidelity and improved signal to noise ratio.
 D. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwith.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!238: What results when an emission A3E transmitter is overmodulated?

 A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects.
 B. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwith.
 C. The signal occupies less bandwith with poor high frequency response.
 D. The transmitter's carrier frequency deviates.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!239: What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz., Reactance
      Modulated oscillator in a 5kHz. deviation, 146.52 MHz. F3E
      transmitter?

 A. 41.67 HZ.
 B. 416.7 HZ.
 C. 5 kHz.
 D. 12 kHz.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!240: What stage in a transmitter would translate a 5.3 MHz. input
      signal to 14.3 MHz.?

 A. A Mixer.
 B. A Beat Frequency Oscillator.
 C. A Frequency Multiplier.
 D. A Linear Translator.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!241: How many frequency components are in the signal from an AF Shift
      keyer at any one instant?

 A. One.
 B. Two.
 C. Three.
 D. Four.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!242: How is the frequency shift related to the keying speed in an FSK
      signal?

 A. The frequency shift in Hertz. must beat least four times the keying
    speed in WPM.
 B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz. per WPM of keying speed.
 C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts.
 D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL


!243: Why is a Yagi Antenna often used for Amateur Radio communications
      on the 20 meter band?

 A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal
 plane.
 B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a Dipole or
    Vertical Antenna.
 C. It discriminates against interference from other stations off to the
    side or behind.
 D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!244: What method is best suited to match an Unbalanced Coaxial Feed
      Line to a Yagi Antenna?

 A. "T" match.
 B. Delta match.
 C. Hairpin match.
 D. Gamma match.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!245: How can the bandwith of a Parasitic Beam Antenna be increased?

 A. Use larger diameter elements.
 B. Use closer element spacing.
 C. Use traps on the elements.
 D. Use tapered diameter elements.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!246: How much gain over a One Half Wavelength Dipole can a two element
      Cubical Quad Antenna provide?

 A. 0.6 dB.
 B. 2 dB.
 C. 6 dB.
 D. 12 dB.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!247: How long is each side of a Cubical Quad Antenna driven element for
      21.4 MHz.?

 A. 1.17 feet.
 B. 11.7 feet.
 C. 47 feet.
 D. 469 feet.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!248: How long is each side of a Cubical Quad Antenna driven element for
      14.3 MHz.?

 A. 1.75 feet.
 B. 17.6 feet.
 C. 23.4 feet.
 D. 70.3 feet.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!249: How long is each side of a Cubical Quad Antenna reflector element
      for 29.6 MHz.?

 A. 8.23 feet.
 B. 8.7 feet.
 C. 9.7 feet.
 D. 34.8 feet.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!250: How long is each leg of a Symmetrical Delta Loop Antenna driven
      element for 28.7 MHz.?

 A. 8.75 feet.
 B. 11.32 feet.
 C. 11.7 feet.
 D. 35 feet.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!251: How long is each leg of a Symmetrical Delta Loop Antenna driven
      element for 24.9 MHz.?

 A. 10.09 feet.
 B. 13.05 feet.
 C. 13.45 feet.
 D. 40.36 feet.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!252: How long is each leg of a Symmetrical Delta Loop Antenna reflector
      element for 14.1 MHz.?

 A. 18.26 feet.
 B. 23.76 feet.
 C. 24.35 feet.
 D. 73.05 feet.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!253: How long is the driven element of a Yagi Antenna for 14.0 MHz.?

 A. Approximately 17 feet.
 B. Approximately 33 feet.
 C. Approximately 35 feet.
 D. Approximately 66 feet.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!254: How long is the director element of a Yagi Antenna for 21.1 MHz.?

 A. Approximately 42 feet.
 B. Approximately 21 feet.
 C. Approximately 17 feet.
 D. Approximately 10.5 feet.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!255: How long is the reflector element of a Yagi Antenna for 28.1 MHz.?

 A. Approximately 8.75 feet.
 B. Approximately 16.6 feet.
 C. Approximately 17.5 feet.
 D. Approximately 35 feet.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!256: What is the feedpoint impedance for a Half Wave Dipole HF Antenna
      suspended horizontally one quarter wavelength or more above the
      ground?

 A. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive.
 B. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive and inductive.
 C. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive and capacitive.
 D. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!257: What is the feedpoint impedance of a Quarter Wavelength Vertical
      HF Antenna with a horizontal ground plane?

 A. 18 ohms.
 B. 36 ohms.
 C. 52 ohms.
 D. 72 ohms.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!258: What is the advantage of downward sloping radials on a Ground
      Plane Antenna?

 A. Sloping the radials downward lowers the radiation angle.
 B. Sloping the radials downward brings the feedpoint impedance closer to
    300 Ohms.
 C. Sloping the radials downward allows rainwater to run off the antenna.
 D. Sloping the radials downward brings the feedpoint impedance closer to
    50 Ohms.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!259: What happens to the feedpoint impedance of a Ground Plane Antenna
      when the radials slope downward from the base of the antenna?

 A. The feedpoint impedance Decreases.
 B. The feedpoint impedance Increases.
 C. The feedpoint impedance stays the same.
 D. The feedpoint impedance becomes purely capacative.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!260: Compared to a Dipole Antenna, what are the directional radiation
      characteristics of a Cubical Quad HF Antenna?

 A. The Quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less
    directivity in the vertical plane.
 B. The Quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more
    directivity in the vertical plane.
 C. The Quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes.
 D. The Quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!261: What is the radiation pattern of an ideal Half Wavelength HF Dipole
      antenna?

 A. If it is installed parallel to the Earth, it radiates well in a
    figure eight pattern at right angles to the antenna wire.
 B. If it is installed parallel to the Earth, it radiates well in a
    figure eight pattern off both ends of the antenna wire.
 C. If it is installed parallel to the Earth, it radiates well in all
    directions.
 D. If it is installed parallel to the Earth, the pattern will have two
    lobes on one side of the antenna wire and one larger lobe on the
    other side.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!262: How does proximity to the ground affect the radiation pattern of a
      Horizontal Dipole HF Antenna?

 A. If the antenna is too far from the ground, the pattern becomes
    unpredictable.
 B. If the antenna is less than one half wavelength from the ground,
    reflected radio waves from the ground distort the radiation pattern
    of the antenna.
 C. A Dipole Antenna's radiation pattern is unaffected by its distance
    to the ground.
 D. If the antenna is less than one half wavelength from the ground,
    radiation off the ends of the wire is reduced.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!263: What does the term ANTENNA FRONT TO BACK RATIO mean?

 A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors.
 B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the
    reflectors and directors.
 C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power
    radiated in exactly the opposite direction.
 D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power
    radiated 90 degrees away from that direction.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!264: What effect upon the radiation pattern of an HF Dipole antenna will
      a slightly smaller parasitic element located a few feet away in the
      same horizontal plane have?

 A. The radiation pattern will not change appreciably.
 B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the
    two elements.
 C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the
    ground.
 D. If the spacing is greater than 0.1 wavelength, a major lobe will
    develop in the horizontal plane to the side of the driven element
    toward the parasitic element.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!265: What is the meaning of the term MAIN LOBE as used in reference to a
      directional antenna?

 A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna.
 B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element.
 C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from a radiating
    antenna.
 D. The maximum Voltage Standing Wave point on a radiating element.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!266: Upon what does the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor
      feed line depend?

 A. The distance between the centers of the conductors
    and the radius of the conductors.
 B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of
    the line.
 C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal.
 D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!267: What is the Characteristic Impedance of various coaxial cables
      commonly used for antenna feed lines at Amateur Stations?

 A. Around 25 and 30 Ohms.
 B. Around 50 and 75 Ohms.
 C. Around 80 and 100 Ohms.
 D. Around 500 and 750 Ohms.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!268: What effect, if any, does the length of a coaxial cable have upon
      its characteristic impedance?

 A. The length has no effect on the characteristic impedance.
 B. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily above
    144 MHz.
 C. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily below
    144 MHz.
 D. The length affects the characteristic impedance at any frequency.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!269: What is the characteristic impedance of Flat Ribbon TV Type twin
      lead?

 A. 50 ohms.
 B. 75 ohms.
 C. 100 ohms.
 D. 300 ohms.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!270: What is the cause of power being reflected back down an Antenna
      Feed Line?

 A. Operating an antenna at its resonate frequency.
 B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle.
 C. A difference between Feed Line Impedance and Antenna Feed Point
    Impedance.
 D. Feeding the antenna with Unbalanced Feed Line.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!271: What will the Standing Wave Ratio when a 50 Ohm feed line is
      connected to a Resonant Antenna having a 200 Ohm feedpoint
      impedance?

 A. 4:1
 B. 1:4
 C. 2:1
 D. 1:2
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!272: What will the Standing Wave Ratio when a 50 Ohm feed line is
      connected to a Resonant Antenna having a 10 Ohm feedpoint
      impedance?

 A. 2:1
 B. 50:1
 C. 1:5
 D. 5:1
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!273: What will the Standing Wave Ratio when a 50 Ohm feed line is
      connected to a Resonant Antenna having a 50 Ohm feedpoint
      impedance?

 A. 2:1
 B. 50:50
 C. 1:1
 D. 0:0
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!274: How does the Characteristic Impedance of a coaxial cable affect the
      amount of attenuation to the RF signal passing through it?

 A. The attenuation is affected more by the characteristic impedance at
    frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz.
 B. The attenuation is affected less by the characteristic impedance at
    frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz.
 C. The attenuation related to the characteristic impedance is about the
    same at all Amateur frequencies below 1.5 GHz.
 D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use.
#ANSWER:C
@GENERAL

!275: How does the amount of attenuation of a 2 Meter signal passing
      through a coaxial cable differ from that to a 160 Meter signal?

 A. The attenuation is greater at 2 meters.
 B. The attenuation is less at 2 meters.
 C. The attenuation is the same at both frequencies.
 D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!276: What is the effect on Feed Line Attenuation when Flat Ribbon
      "Twin Lead" gets wet?

 A. Attenuation decreases slightly.
 B. Attenuation remains the same.
 C. Attenuation decreases sharply.
 D. Attenuation increases.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!277: Why might silicone grease or automotive car wax be applied to the
      outside of Flat Ribbon TV Type Twinlead?

 A. To reduce "skin effect" losses on the conductors.
 B. To reduce the buildup of dirt and moisture on the feed line.
 C. To increase the velocity factor of the feed line.
 D. To help dissipate heat during high SWR operation.
#ANSWER:B
@GENERAL

!278: In what values are RF Feed Line Losses usually expressed?

 A. Bels/1000 ft.
 B.   dB/1000 ft.
 C. Bels/100 ft.
 D.   dB/100 ft.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!279: As operating frequency increases, what happens to the dialectric
      losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decreases.
 B. The losses decreases to zero.
 C. The losses remains the same.
 D. The losses increase.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL

!280: As operating frequency decreases, what happens to the dielectric
      losses in a feed line?

 A. The losses decreases.
 B. The losses increases.
 C. The losses remains the same.
 D. The losses become infinite.
#ANSWER:A
@GENERAL

!281: What condition must be satisfied to prevent Standing Waves of
      Voltage and Current on an Antenna Feed Line?

 A. The Antenna Feed Point must be at DC ground potential.
 B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths
    long.
 C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths
    long.
 D. The Antenna Feed Point Impedance must be matched to the
    Characteristic Impedance of the Feed Line.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL


!282: What is an Antenna - Transmission Line MISMATCH?

 A. A condition where the Feed Point Impedance of the Antenna does not
    equal the Output Impedance of the transmitter.
 B. A condition where the Output Impedance of the transmitter does not
    equal the Characteristic Impedance of the feed line.
 C. A condition where a Half Wavelength Antenna is being fed with a
    transmission line of some length other than One Quarter Wavelength
    at that frequency.
 D. A condition where the Characteristic Impedance of the Feed Line does
    not equal the Feed Point Impedance of the Antenna.
#ANSWER:D
@GENERAL
% END OF GENERAL CLASS