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- Path: sparky!uunet!gatech!ukma!memstvx1!connolly
- From: connolly@memstvx1.memst.edu
- Newsgroups: sci.lang
- Subject: Re: Tones in PIE?
- Message-ID: <1993Jan25.095840.5193@memstvx1.memst.edu>
- Date: 25 Jan 93 09:58:39 -0600
- References: <1993Jan16.185630.25871@enea.se> <1993Jan20.184737.15289@leland.Stanford.EDU> <1993Jan24.114225.28870@enea.se>
- Organization: Memphis State University
- Lines: 51
-
- In article <1993Jan24.114225.28870@enea.se>, sommar@enea.se (Erland Sommarskog) writes:
- > Rich Alderson (alderson@cisco.com) writes:
- >>First, lets make our terminology more precise: Lithuanian, Latvian, certain
- >>Slavic languages, ancient Greek, and Vedic Sanskrit are supposed to have (or
- >>have had) *pitch contours*, rather than *tones* as that term is usually used.
- >
- > So let me ignorant layman ask: how would you describe the two
- > different accents in Swedish, are they tones or pitch contours?
- > Not that I'm questioning anything, I just want to be able to relate
- > to something I know. From where you wrote elsewhere, I would guess
- > the answer in the latter.
-
- Right. "Tone" is reserved for describing systems such as that of
- Chinese. Swedish, like other Germanic languages, has a dynamic (stress)
- accent. At least: it's *primarily* one of stress: a stressed syllable
- is louder, or at least, is perceived as louder. But a pure stress
- system probably doesn't exist: there is always a pitch contour involved
- as well. Swedish and Norwegian are unusual among Germanic languages
- in that there is more than one possible pitch contour, and they contrast.
- English has pitch contours too, but any variation never involves a
- contrast. Or in other words, if you change the pitch contour, you
- still have the same word in English. You wouldn't in Swedish or
- Norwegian.
-
- >>The final upshot of all this is that we usually reconstruct the PIE accent
- >>as a pitch rise based on the Greek and Sanskrit evidence for its pitch nature.
- >>In addition, the oldest Indo-European languages do not show the kinds of vowel
- >>reductions we expect from a stress accent, as in the history of Germanic or
- >>Latin, or the Romance languages.
- >
- > Again, I want something to relate to. Do I understand right that none of
- > the accents in ancient Greek are the same as the one single accent as
- > Romance and West-Germanic languages? (And which is one of the two
- > possible in Swedish?)
-
- Ancient Greek apparently had a pitch accent, with two or three (depending
- on what you do with the grave) contrasting contours. If this syllable
- was louder, it was apparently not perceived as such, which is why the
- vowels in unstressed syllable aren't reduced, and the stress was totally
- ignored in poetry.
-
- As I already explained, the contrasting contours of Greek seem to be a
- peculiarly Greek development. Late Indo-European probably had a pitch
- accent, but without the contrasting contours.
-
- All Germanic languages have abandoned the Indo-European accent system,
- replacing it with a strong dynamic accent on the first syllable (except
- that verb prefixes were not stressed; noun prefixes were). So the Swedish
- system has nothing whatsoever to do with the Indo-European one.
-
- --Leo Connolly
-