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- From: krulwich@zowie.ils.nwu.edu (Bruce Krulwich)
- Subject: Re: Rashi's quote (was Re: Almah - Betulah)
- In-Reply-To: ljmorly@polaris.utu.fi's message of 21 Jan 93 11:37:10
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- Date: Mon, 25 Jan 1993 17:23:43 GMT
- Lines: 84
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-
- Someone (Gedalia) wrote about Rashi's comment on Is 7:14:
-
- > > > > This does not say that the young woman was a virgin, but that she was
- > > > > barren. A virgin is capable of giving birth as soon as she marries.
- > > > > Rashi (and the others) are saying that the miracle was a young woman
- > > > > who was ***INCAPABLE OF GIVING BIRTH*** as indeed were Sarah, and
- > > > > Rivkah (and probably Rachel). This does not specify that she was a
- > > > > virgin.
-
- Laura replied:
-
- > > > Not so. When you look at the original text, you see that it clearly uses
- > > > the word 'almah' to mean 'virgin' -- ALMAH HAITA. The end of the
- > > > sentence gives us the meaning of 'almah'; there's no mention about being
- > > > barren or anything like that. Check yourself.
-
- I then posted a translation of Rashi's comment:
-
- > > Look, this is getting silly. Rashi's comment is "eina re'uya li'valed,"
- > > which means "is not capable of giving birth," just like Hillel Markowitz
- > > said.
-
- Laura now replies:
-
- > Look yourself... You aren't taking the *whole* sentence as it is. How
- > would you translate "veyesh potrin sheze haot shealmah haita ve'eina
- > reuyah levaled" ? There is no mention about being barren !
-
- Are you even reading the posts you're responding to?
-
- I said clearly above that "eina re'uya livaled" means "is not capable of
- giving birth." According to Webster's, barren means "1: not reproducing: as
- 1a: incapable of producing offspring," which is exactly what Rashi said.
- That's why Hillel used the word "barren."
-
- Now, for some reason my translation above didn't count as "taking the whole
- sentence as it is," so here we go:
-
- veyesh potrin and there are those who interpret
- [the "sign" that is mentioned in Is.]
- she'zeh ha'os that this is the sign
- ["os" is the Ashkenazic pronounciation]
- she'alma hi'sa that she was an "alma"
- v'eina re'uya li'valed and was not capable of giving birth
-
- What were Hillel and I missing by not looking at the whole verse? The point
- is that Rashi discusses the alma as being incapable of giving birth. Not that
- she was a virgin, which is how you originally mistranslated it.
-
-
- I then went on to show that the Torah frequently describes women who are NOT
- virgins but are simply incapable of giving birth using the same phrasiology as
- Rashi. The point is that the phrase that Rashi uses doesn't in any way refer
- to virginity, but rather to barrenness.
-
- > > As proof that this means being barren, see Bereshis 16:1, in which Sarah
- > > (then Sarai) is referred to as "lo yalda lo," she hadn't given birth for
- > > him (Avraham). Obviously Sarah was not a virgin, and the Torah is not
- > > saying that she hadn't had relations with Avraham, rather that she hadn't
- > > had a child.
-
- > > This is the meaning of "yalda," which is the same as "li'valed," to give
- > > birth. (The same use of "yalda" is found in bereshis 30:1).
-
- > > So we see that Rashi was saying that the alma in Is 7:14 would be
- > > incapable of giving birth, nothing to do with marital relations. Nuff
- > > said.
-
-
- So now, if Laura questions my translation, she could say so and why. Instead
- she throws in more silliness out of the blue:
-
- > So we see that Rashi is using the word 'almah' in it's original meaning,
- > 'virgin'. Nuff said ?
-
- I'm sorry, but your reasoning escapes me. This looks like yet another case of
- "proof by forceful assertion."
-
- Dov (Bruce) Krulwich
- krulwich@ils.nwu.edu
-
-
-