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- Newsgroups: sci.physics
- Path: sparky!uunet!psinntp!scylla!daryl
- From: daryl@oracorp.com (Daryl McCullough)
- Subject: Re: QM non-causal?
- Message-ID: <1992Dec21.131354.29282@oracorp.com>
- Organization: ORA Corporation
- Date: Mon, 21 Dec 1992 13:13:54 GMT
- Lines: 32
-
- larsj@kih.no (Lars M. Johansen) writes:
-
- >After reading your reply, I understand that I misunderstood your position.
- >I agree with you that observer A will not sense any collapse of wavefuntion
- >due to observations done by B.
- >
- >I wrote that
- >
- >>>In the same vein, COLLAPSE in the QM-wavefuntion does not AUTOMATICALLY
- >>>imply nonlocal effects.
- >
- >and you answered
- >
- >>It depends on whether the wave function is a physical quantity, or
- >>a subjective quantity.
- >
- >Do I sense a contradiction here?
-
- No, I am only considering the possibilities. *If* the wave function is
- physical, *then* instantaneous collapse implies that something nonlocal
- is happening. If it is not physical, then its collapse does not imply
- anything nonlocal.
-
- I agree with you that the wave function is not physical. However, I
- admit that I could be proved wrong.
-
- Daryl McCullough
- ORA Corp.
- Ithaca, NY
-
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