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- Xref: sparky sci.math:17464 sci.physics:21819
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- From: samuel@front.se
- Newsgroups: sci.math,sci.physics
- Subject: Re: Help me deal w/ infinity
- Message-ID: <1992Dec23.030309.125@front.se>
- Date: 23 Dec 92 02:03:09 GMT
- References: <BzL73K.9xr@usenet.ucs.indiana.edu>
- Organization: Samuel Gustaf Siren
- Lines: 70
-
- In article <BzL73K.9xr@usenet.ucs.indiana.edu>,
- mkohlhaa@silver.ucs.indiana.edu (mike) writes:
-
- > A core of our disagreement has been about .9(r) --that means .9repeating
- > but I can't make a little bar over the 9. Anyhow, its been documented that
- > .9(r) is equal to 1. Some of my friends think that this is some kind of
- > a mathematical trick, given the following equation (keep in mind that (r)
- > equals .9repeating):
- >
- > N=.9(r)
- > 10N=9.9(r) Multiply both sides by 10
- > 9N=9 Subtract N from both sides
- > N=1
- >
- > My skeptical friends point out the "subract N from both sides" lines as
- > the problem with the equation. They think that it's bogus that I am
- > litterally subrtracting an N from one side, but subtracting it's equivalent,
- > namely a .9(r) from the other side.
-
- Try this argument ('...' means 'repeating') :
-
- (A) : N = 0.999999...
- (B) : 10N = 9.999999...
-
- (B)-(A) : 10N-N = 9.999999...-0.999999...
- 9N = 9
- N = 1
-
- It in NOT bogus to subtract N from one side and its equivalent from the other,
- since N and its equivalent are equivalent (sic!).
- Please note that I have subtracted EQUATION (A) from EQUATION (B) to get
- the EQUATION "9N = 9". This in an appropriate mathematical method (which I
- think have been used for milleniums).
- Example :
- (a) : 1 + 2 = 3
- (b) : 5 + 8 = 13
- (b)-(a) : 5 + 8 - 1 - 2 = 13 - 3
-
- If this argument doesn't help, why don't ask your friends exactly how much
- they think that 0.999999... differs from 1.
-
-
- It's not my intention to disappoint your friends totally, so I supply this
- BOGUS PROOF of that ANY NUMBER EQUALS ONE :
-
- Imagine an arbitrary number a which equals to b :
-
- a = b => a - b = 0 (1)
-
- a - b => a^2 = ab => a^2 - ab = 0 (2)
-
- (1) and (2) implies :
- a^2 - ab = a - b => a (a - b) = a - b => a (a - b) = 1 (a - b) => a = 1
-
- which proves that any arbitrary number equals 1 ! Why don't you ask your
- 'skeptical friends' if they can find out what's erroneous with this bogus
- proof !
-
- /SS
- --
- +----------------------+--------------------------------------+
- | | / \ |
- | Samuel Gustaf Siren | __!_/_ |
- | | / \ | / \ |
- | | |/ || | \__oW)---------- |
- | All opinions and | !! / /\ \ |
- | questions are my | / / \ \ |
- | own /SS | // // |
- | | /| (( |
- +----------------------+--------------------------------------+
-