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- Xref: sparky sci.math:17414 sci.physics:21760
- Path: sparky!uunet!mtnmath!paul
- From: paul@mtnmath.UUCP (Paul Budnik)
- Newsgroups: sci.math,sci.physics
- Subject: Re: Bayes' theorem and QM
- Message-ID: <453@mtnmath.UUCP>
- Date: 25 Dec 92 16:57:41 GMT
- References: <1992Dec24.101452.16194@oracorp.com>
- Followup-To: sci.math
- Organization: Mountain Math Software, P. O. Box 2124, Saratoga. CA 95070
- Lines: 27
-
- In article <1992Dec24.101452.16194@oracorp.com>, daryl@oracorp.com (Daryl McCullough) writes:
- [...]
- > Nonclassical measure theory simply drops the assumption that the
- > measurable sets form a sigma algebra. It allows for the possibility
- > that proposition A may have a well-defined probability, and proposition
- > B may also have a well-defined probability, while the proposition A and
- > B may be given no probability whatsoever.
- >
- > The applicability to quantum mechanics should be obvious: wave
- > functions allow us to calculate the probability that the particle can
- > be found in region A, and they allow us to calculate the probability
- > that its momentum is in region B, but they don't allow us to calculate
- > the probability that the particle is in region A *and* its momentum is
- > in region B. Quantum mechanics does not give a unique answer to such
- > questions. [...]
-
- The same thing is true of the frequency and location of a wave in classical
- mechanics for a similar reason. Only a delta function has a
- precise location and its spectrum is flat over all frequencies.
- We see no reason to change probability theory to accommodate that case
- and I do not think there is any reason for doing so in QM.
- Of course in QM we force the wave to be more or less like a delta function
- by the type of experiment we perform on it. It would be
- mistake to think that this operation of the experimental apparatus on
- physical phenomena requires a new version of probability theory.
-
- Paul Budnik
-