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- Newsgroups: misc.writing
- Path: sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!darwin.sura.net!aplcen.apl.jhu.edu!visual1.jhuapl.edu!jern
- From: jern@visual1.jhuapl.edu (Bob Jernigan)
- Subject: Re: Grammar
- Message-ID: <1992Dec23.133835.17118@aplcen.apl.jhu.edu>
- Sender: news@aplcen.apl.jhu.edu (USENET News System)
- Reply-To: jern@visual1.jhuapl.edu (Bob Jernigan)
- Organization: Johns Hopkins University
- References: <4200@eastman.UUCP> <Bzo3uw.FGo@nocusuhs.nnmc.navy.mil> <1992Dec22.212350.12902@stsci.edu> <1992Dec22.224716.8245@netcom.com> <fdyA026c2f6R01@JUTS.ccc.amdahl.com>
- Distribution: usa
- Date: Wed, 23 Dec 92 13:38:35 GMT
- Lines: 14
-
- In article <fdyA026c2f6R01@JUTS.ccc.amdahl.com>, branwen@cerebus.ccc.amdahl.com (Karen Williams) writes:
- |> In article <1992Dec22.224716.8245@netcom.com> horen@netcom.com (Jonathan B. Horen -- [408] 736-3923) writes:
- |>
- |> >Split infinitives like "...effort to clearly express my ideas..."
- |> >notwithstanding :-)
- |>
- |> One theory that I've heard proposed as to why English does not allow
- |> split infinitives is that Latin does not allow split infinitives, and
- |> many of our verbs are taken from Latin.
-
- Allow? Are there grammar police lurking in the woodwork? Grammar
- is not jurisprudence.
-
- bob
-