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- Path: sparky!uunet!gatech!darwin.sura.net!paladin.american.edu!news.univie.ac.at!chx400!news.unige.ch!divsun.unige.ch!swann
- From: swann@divsun.unige.ch (SWANN Philip)
- Subject: Re: Theories of meaning not relying solely on sym
- Message-ID: <1992Nov23.150539.14871@news.unige.ch>
- Sender: usenet@news.unige.ch
- Organization: University of Geneva, Switzerland
- References: <1992Nov18.132612.8892@news.unige.ch> <1992Nov18.134406.17573@husc3.harvard.edu> <1992Nov20.102242.23700@news.unige.ch> <1992Nov20.201258.17652@husc3.harvard.edu>
- Date: Mon, 23 Nov 1992 15:05:39 GMT
- Lines: 21
-
- In article <1992Nov20.201258.17652@husc3.harvard.edu>, zeleny@husc10.harvard.edu (Michael Zeleny) writes:
-
-
- >
- > Great. Instead of promulgating my doctrinaire image, perhaps I can
- > ask you to elucidate your [censored] comments. In what sense, and by
- > what kind of argument has the Whitehead and Russell (note the correct
- > order) claim that mathematics is reducible to logic been proved false?
- > What is its relation to the formalist program, and what is the
- > connection between the latter and Montague's proposal?
-
- As far as I know, the paradoxes in set theory and Goedel's work are generally
- accepted as showing that mathematics cannot be derived from logic and
- set theory - thus killing Hilbert's formalist programme. It would appear
- that *formal* logic and set theory are actually simply just bits of
- mathematics with no special status. (I write this as a complete amateur).
- Why do you think that what won't work for math will work for natural language
- (which you believe to be just another formal language)?
-
-
- Philip Swann
-