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- Xref: sparky sci.cognitive:739 sci.philosophy.tech:4221 sci.lang:8156
- Newsgroups: sci.cognitive,sci.philosophy.tech,sci.lang
- Path: sparky!uunet!think.com!ames!news.hawaii.edu!uhunix.uhcc.Hawaii.Edu!lady
- From: lady@uhunix.uhcc.Hawaii.Edu (Lee Lady)
- Subject: Re: Theories of meaning not relying solely on sym
- Message-ID: <1992Nov23.111320.17317@news.Hawaii.Edu>
- Followup-To: sci.cognitive,sci.philosophy.tech,sci.lang
- Summary: Fantastic exercise in self-parody!
- Sender: root@news.Hawaii.Edu (News Service)
- Nntp-Posting-Host: uhunix.uhcc.hawaii.edu
- Organization: University of Hawaii (Mathematics Dept)
- References: <erwin.722217539@trwacs> <MxG=!XC@engin.umich.edu> <1992Nov21.115346.17656@husc3.harvard.edu>
- Date: Mon, 23 Nov 1992 11:13:20 GMT
- Lines: 76
-
- In article <1992Nov21.115346.17656@husc3.harvard.edu> zeleny@husc10.harvard.edu (Michael Zeleny) writes:
- >
- >Just because the correctness of your definition of synonymy is not
- >amenable to confirmation by (narrowly construed) empirical means, does
- >not imply that there is no matter of fact about it. In particular, one
- >failing of the possible-worlds approach consists in its identification
- >of proof-theoretically equivalent propositions. This is unproblematic
- >in situations which call for the study of such deductively closed
- >domains as doxastic commitment; however even in such cases, full
- >generality will be sacrificed to the implicit assumption that the
- >underlying Boolean algebra of propositions must be atomic.
-
- I may be an outsider to this discussion, but it's quite clear to me that
- a whole lot of smileys have been omitted here. As near as I can
- determine, this paragraph is some sort of self-parody. I like the way it
- sucks me in, starting with statements which almost seem to have some
- meaning -- at first, the absurdity of confirming the correctness of a
- definition by empirical means doesn't really hit one -- and it almost seems
- that I vaguely perceive what it is you're saying.
-
- And the you build up to the grand finale statement that
- >full generality
-
- [of what? in what sense? Of course the joke is on the poor reader who
- believes that there actually is some referrent for the word "generality"
- but that he is to dense to find it.]
-
- > will be sacrificed to the implicit assumption
-
- [Another put on: You see, reader, the reason you didn't see this
- assumption [assumed by whom?] is that it's implicit, and you just weren't
- smart enough to notice it!]
-
- >that the underlying Boolean algebra of propositions must be atomic.
-
- [Aha! You see, dear reader, this is very deep stuff, having to do with
- highly abstuse concepts such as Boolean algebras, and that's why you
- can't understand it.]
-
- In fact, I can't imagine any context except highly contrived ones in
- which the boolean algebra of propositions would ever be atomic.
-
-
- I can only guess that the point you want to make is that attempts to
- develop a theory of meaning by invoking model theory and the model-theoretic
- concepts of syntactic truth and semantic truth ... are only useful as venues
- to display one's erudition and engage in one-upmanship.
-
- (Incidentally, in model theory a sentence is said to be syntactically true
- if it can be proved from the axioms. A sentence is semantically true if
- it is true in every model, i.e. in every "interpretation." This
- definition was paraphrased in this discussion by saying that the
- statement is true "in all possible worlds." A mathematical theory is
- called "complete" is every semantically true statement is syntactically
- true, i.e. "every true statement is provable.")
-
- (Sorry if I'm spoiling everyone's fun by explaining what the words
- actually mean.)
-
- You did remind me of an interesting question is mathematical thinking,
- though. It is commonplace for mathematicians to say that two particular
- theorems are equivalent to each other. This is definitely a statement
- about syntactic equivalence, i.e. that either of the two can be proved by
- using the other. On the other hand, by basic logic any two
- syntactically true theorems are in fact syntactically equivalent. So is
- it possible to assign any somewhat precise meaning to the statement that
- two theorems are equivalent, or is this just an impossible vague
- assertion, comparable to the assertion that certain things are
- "interesting"? (What this has to do with cognitive science is more than
- I can figure out.)
-
- --
- It is a poor sort of skepticism which merely delights in challenging
- those claims which conflict with one's own belief system.
- --Bogus quote
- lady@uhunix.uhcc.hawaii.edu lady@uhunix.bitnet
-