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- Newsgroups: sci.skeptic
- Path: sparky!uunet!hfsi!ata
- From: ata@hfsi.uucp (John Ata - FSO)
- Subject: Re: Crucifixion of Jesus?
- Message-ID: <1992Dec24.211246.17041@hfsi.uucp>
- Reply-To: ata@hfsi.UUCP (John Ata - FSO)
- Organization: HFSI, McLean VA.
- References: <1992Dec10.211744.1@stsci.edu> <1992Dec12.005349.25319@netcom.com> <1992Dec14.034645.791@hfsi.uucp> <1992Dec15.002757.14586@netcom.com> <1992Dec17.180435.17980@hfsi.uucp> <1664@tdat.teradata.COM>
- Date: Thu, 24 Dec 1992 21:12:46 GMT
- Lines: 58
-
- In article <1664@tdat.teradata.COM> swf@tools3teradata.com (Stan Friesen) writes:
- >In article <1992Dec17.180435.17980@hfsi.uucp>, ata@hfsi.uucp (John Ata - FSO) writes:
- >|> >Jesus being called "the son of Mary" (which implies an illegitimate
- >|> >paternity), Jesus needing to be baptised, etc.
- >|>
- >|> Just curious, but how does Jesus being called the son of Mary
- >|> imply illegitimacy? Remember, at the time of the passage Joseph
- >|> is believed to have been dead. It seems quite natural to be
- >|> labeled the son of a widow, doesn't it?
- >
- >I doubt it. In most cultures that use patronymics the son continues to use
- >it his entire life, even after his father dies. Changing a person's *name*
- >just because his father died sort of defeats the purpose of having the extra
- >part of the name, after all.
- >
- >So, yes, using a matronymic *does* imply the father is unknown.
-
- If you're talking about a formal surname, I agree. If you're
- talking about identifying someone to some local neighborhood
- people in an informal way, this is something different. I believe
- the passage in question has characteristics more of the latter
- than the former...
-
- >
- >[Note, I *do* agree with you that the best evidence supports a crucifixion].
- >
- >|> > Arguably, you could be right, there *might* have been no need to mention
- >|> > the cross - although we see that by the time he wrote 1 Corinthians,
- >|> > Paul had become positively *obsessed* with "the cross." The significance
- >|> > of this matter is that 1 Thess. 2:15 quite plainly blames the JEWS, not
- >|> > the Romans, for executing Jesus. This implies that, when it was written
- >|> > (c. 48) Paul had in mind a Jewish, not a Roman, execution.
- >|>
- >|> Not at all. "Blame" as you put it, has no necessary connection
- >|> with who did the actual execution. If I pay someone to murder my
- >|> brother, then who shoulders the majority of the blame, myself or
- >|> the payed hit man?
- >
- >Under current law, I suspect you are considered equally to blame.
- >
- >Though I do not really like to talk about blame in this case, it obscures
- >the real point of His execution.
-
- I agree, but only brought it up when it was suggested that Paul's
- "blame" of the Jews necessarily implied a Jewish execution.
-
- >
- >--
- >sarima@teradata.com (formerly tdatirv!sarima)
- > or
- >Stanley.Friesen@ElSegundoCA.ncr.com
-
-
- --
- John G. Ata - Technical Consultant | Internet: ata@hfsi.com
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