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- From: Tim@f4229.n124.z1.fidonet.org (Tim)
- Sender: FredGate@ocitor.fidonet
- Path: sparky!uunet!spool.mu.edu!wupost!gumby!destroyer!sol.ctr.columbia.edu!eff!news.oc.com!utacfd.uta.edu!rwsys!ocitor!FredGate
- Newsgroups: rec.org.sca
- Subject: Re: Heraldic questions...
- Message-ID: <726106949.F00001@ocitor.fidonet>
- Date: Sun, 03 Jan 1993 16:02:48
- Lines: 35
-
- Jeremy de Merstone wrote:
- P> Reply-To: perkins@MSUPA.PA.MSU.EDU
-
- P> > I define "western culture" to include those areas that were part
- P> > of the western half of the Roman empire, a position for which I
- P> > suggest that a substantial case could be made. This means
- P> > Britain, Gaul, Spain, Italy, and I even look askance at most
- P> > of Germany....
-
- P> I suppose that saying "A includes B" does not necessarily imply that
- P> "A does not include C", but the comment about Germany didn't sound like a
- P> "A DOES include C" to me (where A=="western culture" and C=="Germany", in
- P> this case).
-
- Well, which are you concerned with? "What it sounds like" or "what it
- *says*"? If you want my opinion, it's there for anyone to see; if you
- merely want to ascribe an opinion to me that you suspect I might hold, I
- guess you could pull that out of it if it's really important to you.
-
- Nor does "look askance at Germany" imply "cut Germany out altogether",
- which is how you appear to be interpreting it.
-
- The western Roman Empire (and my "preferred core") includes Germany (et
- al.) up to the Rhine; certainly Germany was never part of the *eastern*
- Roman Empire. Your mileage may vary.
-
- P> But I *do* contend that "I define..." represents a "definition".
-
- Pish and tush. "I define X to include Y" is not a definition, it is at
- most merely part of a definition. (*sigh* I blame the schools....)
-
-
- Tadhg, Obelisk
-
- * Origin: Herald's Point * Steppes/Ansteorra * 214-699-0057 (1:124/4229)
-