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- Xref: sparky misc.legal:21908 alt.politics.usa.constitution:1363
- Path: sparky!uunet!olivea!gossip.pyramid.com!pyramid!unify!unify!rjc
- From: rjc@devo.unify.com (Ronald Cole)
- Newsgroups: misc.legal,alt.politics.usa.constitution
- Subject: why has statutory law been replacing common law?
- Message-ID: <RJC.92Dec31131132@devo.unify.com>
- Date: 31 Dec 92 21:11:32 GMT
- Sender: news@Unify.Com (news admin)
- Organization: Unify Corporation, Sacramento, California
- Lines: 24
-
- In article <C045rp.64o@world.std.com> srm@world.std.com (Stevens R Miller) writes:
- Also, all charges of rape are statutory in both New York and New
- Jersey; neither state has common law crimes.
-
- Not being an attorney, I can see no benefit in replacing common law with
- statutory law. Article VI, Section 1, of the U.S. Constitution reads:
-
- "All ... engagements entered into, before the adoption of this
- Constitution, shall be as valid against the United States under
- this Constitution, as under the Confederation."
-
- Doesn't this mean that the Magna Carta still has force of law through
- the 14th Amendment?
-
- If yes, then does this have something to do with Erie Railroad Co. v.
- Tompkins, 304 US 54 overturning Swift v. Tyson (1-8 Pet 1-8 (1842)?
-
- Can someone please explain it to me?
-
- --
- Ronald Cole +----------------------+ internet: rjc@unify.com
- Software Engineer II | Lord/Genis '96 | uucp: uunet!unify!rjc
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