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- From: jwales@silver.ucs.indiana.edu (jimmy donal wales)
- Subject: Re: Trade War?
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- References: <thompson.721676187@daphne.socsci.umn.edu> <Bxo7Fo.G8H@usenet.ucs.indiana.edu> <thompson.721886163@kiyotaki.econ.umn.edu>
- Date: Mon, 16 Nov 1992 14:57:16 GMT
- Lines: 79
-
- I think that T. Scott Thompson and I are in substantial agreement here.
- But there is an important subtlety.
-
- >I don't see this at all. Pareto efficiency is a well-defined concept
- >that does not require any interpersonal welfare comparisons
- >whatsoever. Where does "fairness" come into the definition?
-
- Well, you and I agree on this. But note that not everyone would!
- There is a presumption here that an increased flow of material goods
- for everyone is a valid goal of public policy. But there are those
- who would argue that it is (literally) 'unfair' for some to have more
- than others. Just stick 'envy' into the utility function and think
- about it again.
-
- Think in terms of Marxist 'alienation', too. That'll buy you the
- same result. (Well, sort of.)
-
- Let's define two versions of 'Pareto efficient'. I'll call an
- equilibrium 'material Patero efficient' (mPE) just when it is not possible
- to give any individual more material goods without making some other
- individual worse off. And I'll call an equilibrium 'spiritual
- Pareto efficient' (sPE) just when (taking into account envy) it is
- not possible to give any individual more utility without making some
- other individual worse off.
-
- It is easy to see that the two will not, in general, be the same.
- And it is easy to see that if an economist argues for policies which
- are mPE, then that economist might be arguing for policies which are
- NOT sPE.
-
- Which brings up my question:
-
- >> Any question of efficiency must first answer the
- >>question 'efficient for what?' and the 'for what' part must include
- >>ethical judgements.
- >
- >I don't understand this at all. What does the question "efficient for
- >what?" mean. Can you give some definitions or examples, preferably
- >showing the implicit assumptions about fairness that I supposedly make
- >in my arguments against EC agricultural price supports?
-
- Do you see my answer now? The implicit assumption that you are making
- is that 'envy' is unimportant for considerations of public policy.
-
- >Any discussion of policy must include some implicit vaLues. After
- >all, we need some criteria for deciding on what is a good or bad
- >policy. But a value judgement is not necessarily a statement about
- >fairness (whatever the latter is).
-
- Well, the last sentence is basically right, I think. But I think that
- almost every _public policy_ value judgement is a statement about fairness.
- I would have to think about this more to totally clarify what I mean.
-
- >I do not see that pure efficiency arguments require any more than
- >this, however. In terms of elementary concepts, the efficiency
- >argument says that it is possible (and implicitly desirable) to
- >increase the consumption level of every individual relative to the
- >status quo. It is possible to do this because the price subsidies
- >prevent markets from moving producers to the world production
- >possibilities frontier.
-
- I agree with all of the above. And note that I don't think that
- it is an implausible or fantastic value judgement to state that
- material goods matter, while 'envy' does not. But it is important
- to recognize that many radical critiques of capitalism question
- just this assumption... and that this assumption may require some
- ethical theory as backing. A full defense of capitalism can not be
- made on purely value-free grounds.
-
- >I believe that I made it clear that this is a theoretical result.
- >Conceivably it is not workable in the real world. But I do not see
- >any fundamental obstacles in the case of EC agricultural subsidies
- >except for the political ones.
-
- I agree with the above.
-
- --Jimbo
-
-
-