Programmer 7500

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1. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 10.14-MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 2. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 3725-kHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 3. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 7080-kHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 4. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 24.95-MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 5. What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station transmitting on 21.150-MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts DC input D. 1500 watts PEP output 6. How must a General control operator at a Novice station make the station identification when transmitting on 7050-kHz? A. The control operator should identify the station with his or her call, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice call B. The control operator should identify the station with his or her call, followed by the slant bar "/" and the Novice call C. The control operator should identify the station with the Novice call, followed by the slant bar "/" and his or her own call D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7050 kHz, even with a General class control operator 7. How must a newly-upgraded General control operator with a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination identify the station when transmitting on 14.325-MHz pending the receipt of a new operator license? A. General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz B. No special form of identification is needed C. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the words "temporary" and the two-letter ID code shown on the Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination D. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the date and location of the VEC examination where he/she obtained the upgraded license 8. Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party traffic be transmitted to a foreign country by an amateur station? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the country has a third-party traffic agreement with the United States C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class licensee D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with the United States 9. What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station to a foreign country for a third-party? A. Third-party traffic involving material compensation, either tangible or intangible, direct or indirect, to a third party, a station licensee, a control operator, or any other person B. Third-party traffic consisting of business communications on behalf of any party C. Only third-party traffic which does not involve material compensation of any kind, and is not business communication of any type D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third parties 10. What additional limitations apply to third-party messages transmitted to foreign countries? A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to amateurs in countries with which the US has a third-party traffic agreement B. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 1 C. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 3 D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in English 11. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmitting on 29.64-MHz repeat the 146.34-MHz signals of an amateur station with a Technician control operator? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter is authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz 12. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 160 meter band? A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only 13. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 75/80 meter band? A. 3525 to 3750 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only C. 3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only 14. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 40 meter band? A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only 15. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 30 meter band? A. 10,100 to 10,150 kHz only B. 10,105 to 10,150 kHz only C. 10,125 to 10,150 kHz only D. 10,100 to 10,125 kHz only 16. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 20 meter band? A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only 17. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 15 meter band? A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only 18. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 12 meter band? A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only D. 24,790 to 24,990 kHz only 19. What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 10 meter band? A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only C. 28,100 to 29,700 kHz only D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only 20. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820-kHz? A. Extra only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only 21. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950-kHz? A. Extra, Advanced only B. Extra, Advanced, General only C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice 22. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230-kHz? A. Extra only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only 23. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125-MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra only D. Technician only 24. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325-MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only B. Extra, Advanced, General only C. Extra, Advanced only D. Extra only 25. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425-MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only 26. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895-MHz? A. Extra only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. None 27. Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616-MHz? A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only C. General, Advanced, Extra only D. Advanced, Extra only 28. On what frequencies within the 160 meter band may emission A3E be transmitted? A. 1800-2000 kHz only B. 1800-1900 kHz only C. 1900-2000 kHz only D. 1825-1950 kHz only 29. On what frequencies within the 80 meter band may emission A1A be transmitted? A. 3500-3750 kHz only B. 3700-3750 kHz only C. 3500-4000 kHz only D. 3890-4000 kHz only 30. On what frequencies within the 40 meter band may emission A3F be transmitted? A. 7225-7300 kHz only B. 7000-7300 kHz only C. 7100-7150 kHz only D. 7150-7300 kHz only 31. On what frequencies within the 30 meter band may emission F1B be transmitted? A. 10.140-10.150 MHz only B. 10.125-10.150 MHz only C. 10.100-10.150 MHz only D. 10.100-10.125 MHz only 32. On what frequencies within the 20 meter band may emission A3C be transmitted? A. 14,200-14,300 kHz only B. 14,150-14,350 kHz only C. 14,025-14,150 kHz only D. 14,150-14,300 kHz only 33. On what frequencies within the 15 meter band may emission F3C be transmitted? A. 21,200-21,300 kHz only B. 21,350-21,450 kHz only C. 21,200-21,450 kHz only D. 21,100-21,200 kHz only 34. On what frequencies within the 12 meter band may emission J3E be transmitted? A. 24,890-24,990 kHz only B. 24,890-24,930 kHz only C. 24,930-24,990 kHz only D. J3E is not permitted in this band 35. On what frequencies within the 10 meter band may emission A3E be transmitted? A. 28,000-28,300 kHz only B. 29,000-29,700 kHz only C. 28,300-29,700 kHz only D. 28,000-29,000 kHz only 36. How is the sending speed (signaling rate) for digital communications determined? A. By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in minutes) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized) B. By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in seconds) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized) C. By taking the reciprocal of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in seconds) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized) D. By taking the square root of the shortest (signaling) time interval (in minutes) that occurs during a transmission, where each time interval is the period between changes of transmitter state (including changes in emission amplitude, frequency, phase, or combination of these, as authorized) 37. What is the maximum sending speed permitted for an emission F1B transmission below 28-MHz? A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 1200 bauds D. 300 bauds 38. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station engage in some form of broadcasting? A. During severe storms, amateurs may broadcast weather information for people with scanners B. Under no circumstances C. If power levels under one watt are used, amateur stations may broadcast information bulletins, but not music D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz 39. What protection, if any, is afforded an amateur station transmission against retransmission by a broadcast station? A. No protection whatsoever B. The broadcaster must secure permission for retransmission from the control operator of the amateur station C. The broadcaster must petition the FCC for retransmission rights 30 days in advance D. Retransmissions may only be made during a declared emergency 40. Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a violin be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission C. Only above 1215 MHz D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service 41. Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a piano be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission B. Only above 1215 MHz C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service D. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions 42. Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a harmonica be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission D. Only above 1215 MHz 43. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmit a message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning? A. Only above 450 MHz B. Only on Field Day C. Never D. Only during a declared communications emergency 44. What types of abbreviations or signals are not considered codes or ciphers? A. Abbreviations and signals certified by the ARRL B. Abbreviations and signals established by regulation or custom and usage and whose intent is to facilitate communication and not to obscure meaning C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure the meaning of the message to FCC monitoring stations D. Only "10-codes" are permitted 45. When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in domestic amateur radiocommunications? A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored contests C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during nationally declared emergencies D. Codes and ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz 46. When, if ever, are codes and ciphers permitted in international amateur radiocommunications? A. Codes and ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX contests C. Codes and ciphers are permitted during internationally declared emergencies D. Codes and ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above 2.3 GHz 47. What is meant by the term flattopping in an emission J3E transmission? A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed 48. How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on an emission J3E transmitter? A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks D. For a dip in plate current 49. In which segment of the 20 meter band do most emission F1B transmissions take place? A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz 50. In which segment of the 80 meter band do most emission F1B transmissions take place? A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz B. 3500 to 3525 kHz C. 3700 to 3750 kHz D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz 51. What is meant by the term Baudot? A. Baudot is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits B. Baudot is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space bits C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits D. Baudot is a 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits 52. What is meant by the term ASCII? A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits B. ASCII is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space bits C. ASCII is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits D. ASCII is a 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two space bits 53. What is the most common frequency shift for emission F1B transmissions in the amateur HF bands? A. 85 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 850 Hz 54. What are the two subset modes of AMTOR? A. A mark of 2125 Hz and a space of 2295 Hz B. Baudot and ASCII C. ARQ and FEC D. USB and LSB 55. What is the meaning of the term ARQ? A. Automatic Repeater Queue B. Automatic Receiver Quieting C. Automatically Resend Quickly D. Automatic Repeat Request 56. What is the meaning of the term FEC? A. Frame Error Check B. Forward Error Correction C. Frequency Envelope Control D. Frequency Encoded Connection 57. What is a band plan? A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for operating within a specific portion of radio spectrum B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and Regulations C. A schedule for operating devised by the Federal Communications Commission D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use a band during a contest 58. What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 10 meter station in repeater operation? A. 100 kHz B. 600 kHz C. 1.6 MHz D. 170 Hz 59. What is meant by the term VOX transmitter control? A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to transmit automatically when the operator speaks into the microphone B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter when the operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony C. Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning in a transceiver D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient noise level 60. What is the common name for the circuit that causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when a person speaks into the microphone? A. VXO B. VOX C. VCO D. VFO 61. What is meant by the term full break-in telegraphy? A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the breaking station sends the Morse Code symbol BK B. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only automatic keyers can be used C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the operator must activate the send-receive switch after completing a transmission D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the receiver is sensitive to incoming signals between transmitted key pulses 62. What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy capability? A. QSB B. QSF C. QSK D. QSV 63. When selecting an emission A1A transmitting frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed in order to minimize interference? A. 5 to 50 Hz B. 150 to 500 Hz C. Approximately 3 kHz D. Approximately 6 kHz 64. When selecting an emission J3E transmitting frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed in order to minimize interference? A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers 65. When selecting an emission F1B RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed in order to minimize interference? A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center 66. What is an azimuthal map? A. A map projection that is always centered on the North Pole B. A map projection, centered on a particular location, that determines the shortest path between two points on the surface of the earth C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit 67. How can an azimuthal map be helpful in conducting international HF radiocommunications? A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the shortest path to a DX station B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting antenna height to conduct the desired communication C. It is used to determine the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator D. It is used to determine the maximum usable frequency (MUF) 68. What is the most useful type of map when orienting a directional antenna toward a station 5,000 miles distant? A. Azimuthal B. Mercator C. Polar projection D. Topographical 69. A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from the short-path heading? A. 45 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 270 degrees 70. What is the short-path heading to Antarctica? A. Approximately 0 degrees B. Approximately 90 degrees C. Approximately 180 degrees D. Approximately 270 degrees 71. When permitted, transmissions to amateur stations in another country must be limited to only what type of messages? A. Messages of any type are permitted B. Messages that compete with public telecommunications services C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character of relative unimportance D. Such transmissions are never permitted 72. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the continental United States? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 73. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Alaska? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 74. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is American Samoa? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 75. For uniformity in international radiocommunication, what time measurement standard should amateur radio operators worldwide use? A. Eastern Standard Time B. Uniform Calibrated Time C. Coordinated Universal Time D. Universal Time Control 76. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Hawaii? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 77. In which International Telecommunication Union Region are the Northern Mariana Islands? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 78. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Guam? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 79. In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Wake Island? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 80. What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau? A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing examinations C. Amateur Volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters D. Amateur Volunteers who determine height above average terrain measurements for repeater installations 81. What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau? A. To enforce amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules B. To foster amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules C. To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the repeater subbands D. To provide emergency and public safety communications 82. What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can normally be covered in one hop using the F2 layer? A. Approximately 180 miles B. Approximately 1200 miles C. Approximately 2500 miles D. No distance; this layer does not support radio communication 83. What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can be covered in one hop using the E layer? A. Approximately 180 miles B. Approximately 1200 miles C. Approximately 2500 miles D. No distance; this layer does not support radio communication 84. What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E layer? A. 45 miles B. 70 miles C. 200 miles D. 1200 miles 85. During what part of the day, and in what season of the year can the F2 layer be expected to reach its maximum height? A. At noon during the summer B. At midnight during the summer C. At dusk in the spring and fall D. At noon during the winter 86. What is the critical angle, as used in radio wave propagation? A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth under specific ionospheric conditions B. The compass direction of the desired DX station from your location C. The 180-degree-inverted compass direction of the desired DX station from your location D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth during specific ionospheric conditions 87. What is the main reason that the 160, 80, and 40 meter amateur bands tend to be useful for only short-distance communications during daylight hours? A. Because of a lack of activity B. Because of auroral propagation C. Because of D-layer absorption D. Because of magnetic flux 88. What is the principal reason the 160 meter through 40 meter bands are useful for only short-distance radiocommunications during daylight hours? A. F-layer bending B. Gamma radiation C. D-layer absorption D. Tropospheric ducting 89. If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to Africa is 22-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO? A. 10 meters B. 15 meters C. 20 meters D. 40 meters 90. If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to West Germany is 17-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO? A. 80 meters B. 40 meters C. 20 meters D. 2 meters 91. Over what periods of time do sudden ionospheric disturbances normally last? A. The entire day B. A few minutes to a few hours C. A few hours to a few days D. Approximately one week 92. What can be done at an amateur station to continue radiocommunications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance? A. Try a higher frequency B. Try the other sideband C. Try a different antenna polarization D. Try a different frequency shift 93. What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? A. Disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies C. Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are affected 94. How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's ultraviolet radiation to cause ionospheric disturbances on earth? A. Instantaneously B. 1.5 seconds C. 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours 95. Sudden ionospheric disturbances cause increased radio wave absorption in which layer of the ionosphere? A. D layer B. E layer C. F1 layer D. F2 layer 96. What is a characteristic of backscatter signals? A. High intelligibility B. A wavering sound C. Reversed modulation D. Reversed sidebands 97. What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted? A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field B. The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal's clarity C. The earth's E-layer at the point of radio wave refraction D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to the transmitter skip zone through several radio-wave paths 98. What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation? A. Ground wave B. Scatter C. Sporadic-E skip D. Short path skip 99. When does ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur? A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum B. At night C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency 100. What is solar flux? A. The density of the sun's magnetic field B. The radio energy emitted by the sun C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun 101. What is the solar-flux index? A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months C. Another name for the American sunspot number D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily 102. What is a timely indicator of solar activity? A. The 2800-MHz solar flux index B. The mean Canadian sunspot number C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time D. Van Allen radiation measurements taken at Boulder, Colorado 103. What type of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band are indicated by a solar-flux index value of 60 to 70? A. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation B. No ionospheric propagation is possible C. Excellent ionospheric propagation D. Poor ionospheric propagation 104. A solar flux index in the range of 90 to 110 indicates what type of propagation conditions on the 15 meter band? A. Poor ionospheric propagation B. No ionospheric propagation is possible C. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation D. Good ionospheric propagation 105. A solar flux index of greater than 120 would indicate what type of propagation conditions on the 10 meter band? A. Good ionospheric propagation B. Poor ionospheric propagation C. No ionospheric propagation is possible D. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation 106. For widespread long distance openings on the 6 meter band, what solar-flux index values would be required? A. Less than 50 B. Approximately 75 C. Greater than 100 D. Greater than 250 107. If the MUF is high and HF radiocommunications are generally good for several days, a similar condition can usually be expected how many days later? A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 28 days D. 90 days 108. What is a geomagnetic disturbance? A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole C. Ripples in the ionosphere D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short period of time 109. Which latitude paths are more susceptible to geomagnetic disturbances? A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude C. Equatorial paths D. All paths are affected equally 110. What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radiocommunications? A. Improved high-latitude HF communications B. Degraded high-latitude HF communications C. Improved ground-wave propagation D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF 111. How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave propagation on earth? A. The effect is instantaneous B. 1.5 seconds C. 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours 112. Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be attached to fuses in a 234-VAC primary (single phase) power supply? A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire C. Only the ground (bare) wire D. All wires 113. What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 117-VAC household lighting circuit? A. AWG number 14 B. AWG number 16 C. AWG number 18 D. AWG number 22 114. What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 117-VAC household appliance circuit? A. AWG number 20 B. AWG number 16 C. AWG number 14 D. AWG number 12 115. What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the transmitter is keyed? A. RF in the AC pole transformer B. High resistance in the key contacts C. A drop in AC line voltage D. The line cord is wired incorrectly 116. What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household appliance circuit? A. Maximum of 100 amperes B. Maximum of 60 amperes C. Maximum of 30 amperes D. Maximum of 20 amperes 117. What safety feature is provided by a bleeder resistor in a power supply? A. It improves voltage regulation B. It discharges the filter capacitors C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils D. It eliminates ground-loop current 118. What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? A. Normal speech B. An audio-frequency sine wave C. Two audio-frequency sine waves D. An audio-frequency square wave 119. To test the amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter with an oscilloscope, what should the audio input to the transmitter be? A. Normal speech B. An audio-frequency sine wave C. Two audio-frequency sine waves D. An audio-frequency square wave 120. How are two-tones used to test the amplitude linearity of an emission J3E transmitter? A. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of a J3E transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope B. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer C. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope D. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a wattmeter 121. What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the linearity of an emission J3E transmitter? A. 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz tones must be used B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used C. Any two audio tones may be used, if they are harmonically related D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related 122. What can be determined by making a two-tone test using an oscilloscope? A. The percent of frequency modulation B. The percent of carrier phase shift C. The frequency deviation D. The amplifier linearity 123. How can the grid-current meter in a power amplifier be used as a neutralizing indicator? A. Tune for minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed B. Tune for maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed C. Tune for minimum grid current D. Tune for maximum grid current 124. Why is neutralization in some vacuum tube amplifiers necessary? A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned circuits B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode capacitance 125. How is neutralization of an RF amplifier accomplished? A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input on alternate half cycles B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted 360 degrees out of phase C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted 180 degrees out of phase D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input with a proper DC bias 126. What purpose does a neutralizing circuit serve in an RF amplifier? A. It controls differential gain B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback C. It eliminates circulating currents D. It reduces incidental grid modulation 127. What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter? A. To limit the modulation index B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods D. To keep the carrier on frequency 128. How can the output PEP of a transmitter be determined with an oscilloscope? A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(RL) B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)]/RL C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL) D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)]/RL 129. What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows 200-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals? A. 100 watts B. 200 watts C. 400 watts D. 1000 watts 130. What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows 500-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals? A. 500 watts B. 625 watts C. 1250 watts D. 2500 watts 131. What is the output PEP from an N0N transmitter when an average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts? A. 530 watts B. 1060 watts C. 1500 watts D. 2120 watts 132. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? A. The ohmmeter B. The signal generator C. The ammeter D. The oscilloscope 133. What types of signals can an oscilloscope measure? A. Any time-dependent signal within the bandwidth capability of the instrument B. Blinker-light signals from ocean-going vessels C. International nautical flag signals D. Signals created by aeronautical flares 134. What is an oscilloscope? A. An instrument that displays the radiation resistance of an antenna B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms 135. What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope cathode ray tube? A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the cathode ray tube B. Too high an intensity setting C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier D. Improperly adjusted focus 136. What is a signal tracer? A. A direction-finding antenna B. An aid for following schematic diagrams C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit D. A device for drawing signal waveforms 137. How is a signal tracer used? A. To detect the presence of a signal in the various stages of a receiver B. To locate a source of interference C. To trace the path of a radio signal through the ionosphere D. To draw a waveform on paper 138. What is a signal tracer normally used for? A. To identify the source of radio transmissions B. To make exact replicas of signals C. To give a visual indication of standing waves on open-wire feed lines D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver 139. What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate audio frequency interference to home entertainment systems? A. Install bypass inductors B. Install bypass capacitors C. Install metal oxide varistors D. Install bypass resistors 140. What should be done when a properly-operating amateur station is the source of interference to a nearby telephone? A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment B. Contact a phone service representative about installing RFI filters C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier 141. What sound is heard from a public address system when audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission J3E transmission? A. A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's carrier is on the air B. On-and-off humming or clicking C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals 142. How can the possibility of audio rectification occurring be minimized? A. By using a solid state transmitter B. By using CW emission only C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded D. By using AM emission only 143. What sound is heard from a public address system when audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby emission A3E transmission? A. Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter signals B. On-and-off humming or clicking C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals D. Extremely loud, severely distorted speech from the transmitter's signals 144. What is the reason for using a speech processor with an emission J3E transmitter? A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter power requirements B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency fidelity D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal intelligibility at the receiver 145. When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech processor increase the output PEP? A. Yes B. No C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output 146. Under which band conditions should a speech processor not be used? A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band B. When the band is crowded C. When the frequency in use is clear D. When the sunspot count is relatively high 147. What effect can result from using a speech processor with an emission J3E transmitter? A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter power requirements B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency fidelity D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal intelligibility at the receiver 148. At what point in a coaxial line should an electronic T-R switch be installed? A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna C. At the antenna feed point D. Right after the low-pass filter 149. Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a mechanical one? A. Greater receiver sensitivity B. Circuit simplicity C. Higher operating speed D. Cleaner output signals 150. What station accessory facilitates QSK operation? A. Oscilloscope B. Audio CW filter C. Antenna relay D. Electronic TR switch 151. What is an antenna noise bridge? A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical circuit B. An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna or other electrical circuit C. An instrument for measuring solar flux D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver 152. How is an antenna noise bridge used? A. It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise is read directly B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for minimum SWR C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance and tuned for minimum noise D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and adjusted for minimum SWR 153. How does the emitted waveform from a properly-adjusted emission J3E transmitter appear on a monitoring oscilloscope? A. A vertical line B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform C. A square wave D. Two loops at right angles 154. What is the best instrument for checking transmitted signal quality from an emissions A1A/J3E transmitter? A. A monitor oscilloscope B. A field strength meter C. A sidetone monitor D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier 155. What is a monitoring oscilloscope? A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals B. A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted signal C. A device used to display SSTV signals D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage 156. How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station in order to check the quality of the transmitted signal? A. Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical-deflection plates of the oscilloscope B. Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope vertical input C. Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope vertical input D. Connect the transmitter output to the vertical-deflection plates of the oscilloscope 157. What is the most appropriate instrument to use when determining antenna horizontal radiation patterns? A. A field strength meter B. A grid-dip meter C. A wave meter D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter 158. What is a field-strength meter? A. A device for determining the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line B. A device for checking modulation on the output of a transmitter C. A device for monitoring relative RF output D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output 159. What is a simple instrument that can be useful for monitoring relative RF output during antenna and transmitter adjustments? A. A field-strength meter B. An antenna noise bridge C. A multimeter D. A Transmatch 160. When the power output from a transmitter is increased by four times, how should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver change? A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit B. Increase by approximately one S-unit C. Increase by approximately four S-units D. Decrease by approximately four S-units 161. By how many times must the power output from a transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S-8 to S-9? A. Approximately 2 times B. Approximately 3 times C. Approximately 4 times D. Approximately 5 times 162. What is meant by the term impedance? A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only capacitance C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit D. The force of repulsion presented to an electric field by another field with the same charge 163. What is the opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing both resistance and reactance called? A. Ohm B. Joule C. Impedance D. Watt 164. What is meant by the term reactance? A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized 165. What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by an inductor called? A. Resistance B. Reluctance C. Admittance D. Reactance 166. What is the opposition to the flow of AC caused by a capacitor called? A. Resistance B. Reluctance C. Admittance D. Reactance 167. How does a coil react to AC? A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also increases C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance also increases 168. How does a capacitor react to AC? A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance also increases D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases 169. When will a power source deliver maximum output? A. When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source B. When the SWR has reached a maximum value C. When the power supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current D. When air wound transformers are used instead of iron core transformers 170. What is meant by impedance matching? A. To make the load impedance much greater than the source impedance B. To make the load impedance much less than the source impedance C. To use a balun at the antenna feed point D. To make the load impedance equal the source impedance 171. What occurs when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source? A. The source delivers minimum power to the load B. There will be a high SWR condition C. No current can flow through the circuit D. The source delivers maximum power to the load 172. Why is impedance matching important in radio work? A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal 173. What is the unit measurement of reactance? A. Mho B. Ohm C. Ampere D. Siemen 174. What is the unit measurement of impedance? A. Ohm B. Volt C. Ampere D. Watt 175. What is a bel? A. The basic unit used to describe a change in power levels B. The basic unit used to describe a change in inductances C. The basic unit used to describe a change in capacitances D. The basic unit used to describe a change in resistances 176. What is a decibel? A. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 0.1 bel B. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 0.01 bel C. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 10 bels D. A unit used to describe a change in power levels, equal to 100 bels 177. Under ideal conditions, a barely detectable change in loudness is approximately how many dB? A. 12 dB B. 6 dB C. 3 dB D. 1 dB 178. A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB? A. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 1 dB higher B. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 3 dB higher C. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 6 dB higher D. Multiplying the original power by 2 gives a new power that is 12 dB higher 179. An increase of 6 dB results from raising the power by how many times? A. Multiply the original power by 1.5 to get the new power B. Multiply the original power by 2 to get the new power C. Multiply the original power by 3 to get the new power D. Multiply the original power by 4 to get the new power 180. A decrease of 3 dB results from lowering the power by how many times? A. Divide the original power by 1.5 to get the new power B. Divide the original power by 2 to get the new power C. Divide the original power by 3 to get the new power D. Divide the original power by 4 to get the new power 181. A signal strength report is "10 dB over S9". If the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what should be the new signal strength report? A. S5 B. S7 C. S9 D. S9 plus 5 dB 182. A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9". If the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts, what should be the new signal strength report? A. S5 B. S7 C. S9 D. S9 plus 10 dB 183. A signal strength report is "20 dB over S9". If the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 15 watts, what should be the new signal strength report? A. S5 B. S7 C. S9 D. S9 plus 10 dB 184. If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two parallel-connected 10 ohm resistors, how much current passes through each resistor? A. 10 amperes B. 2 amperes C. 1 ampere D. 0.5 ampere 185. In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, what relationship does the total current have to the current in the branch circuits? A. The total current equals the average of the branch current through each resistor B. The total current equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor C. The total current decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit D. The total current is calculated by adding the voltage drops across each resistor and multiplying the sum by the total number of all circuit resistors 186. How many watts of electrical power are being used when a 400-VDC power source supplies an 800 ohm load? A. 0.5 watt B. 200 watts C. 400 watts D. 320,000 watts 187. How many watts of electrical power are being consumed by a 12-VDC pilot light which draws 0.2-amperes? A. 60 watts B. 24 watts C. 6 watts D. 2.4 watts 188. How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0-milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms? A. Approximately 61 milliwatts B. Approximately 39 milliwatts C. Approximately 11 milliwatts D. Approximately 9 milliwatts 189. How is the total resistance calculated for several resistors in series? A. The total resistance must be divided by the number of resistors to ensure accurate measurement of resistance B. The total resistance is always the lowest-rated resistance C. The total resistance is found by adding the individual resistances together D. The tolerance of each resistor must be raised proportionally to the number of resistors 190. What is the total resistance of two equal, parallel-connected resistors? A. Twice the resistance of either resistance B. The sum of the two resistances C. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact resistances D. Half the resistance of either resistor 191. What is the total inductance of two equal, parallel-connected inductors? A. Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling B. Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling C. The sum of the two inductances, assuming no mutual coupling D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact inductances 192. What is the total capacitance of two equal, parallel-connected capacitors? A. Half the capacitance of either capacitor B. Twice the capacitance of either capacitor C. The value of either capacitor D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the exact capacitances 193. What is the total resistance of two equal, series-connected resistors? A. Half the resistance of either resistor B. Twice the resistance of either resistor C. The value of either resistor D. The total resistance cannot be determined without knowing the exact resistances 194. What is the total inductance of two equal, series-connected inductors? A. Half the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling B. Twice the inductance of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling C. The value of either inductor, assuming no mutual coupling D. The total inductance cannot be determined without knowing the exact inductances 195. What is the total capacitance of two equal, series-connected capacitors? A. Half the capacitance of either capacitor B. Twice the capacitance of either capacitor C. The value of either capacitor D. The total capacitance cannot be determined without knowing the exact capacitances 196. What is the voltage across a 500 turn secondary winding in a transformer when the 2250 turn primary is connected to 117-VAC? A. 2369 volts B. 526.5 volts C. 26 volts D. 5.8 volts 197. What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier having an output impedance of 200 ohms to a speaker having an impedance of 10 ohms? A. 4.47 to 1 B. 14.14 to 1 C. 20 to 1 D. 400 to 1 198. What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier having an output impedance of 600 ohms to a speaker having an impedance of 4 ohms? A. 12.2 to 1 B. 24.4 to 1 C. 150 to 1 D. 300 to 1 199. What is the impedance of a speaker which requires a transformer with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having an output impedance of 2000 ohms? A. 576 ohms B. 83.3 ohms C. 7.0 ohms D. 3.5 ohms 200. What is the voltage that would produce the same amount of heat over time in a resistive element as would an applied sine wave AC voltage? A. A DC voltage equal to the peak-to-peak value of the AC voltage B. A DC voltage equal to the RMS value of the AC voltage C. A DC voltage equal to the average value of the AC voltage D. A DC voltage equal to the peak value of the AC voltage 201. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave which has an RMS voltage of 117-volts? A. 82.7 volts B. 165.5 volts C. 183.9 volts D. 330.9 volts 202. A sine wave of 17-volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS? A. 8.5 volts B. 12 volts C. 24 volts D. 34 volts 203. What is the effect of an increase in ambient temperature on the resistance of a carbon resistor? A. The resistance will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade that the temperature increases B. The resistance stays the same C. The resistance change depends on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating D. The resistance becomes time dependent 204. What type of capacitor is often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC? A. Disc ceramic B. Vacuum variable C. Mica D. Electrolytic 205. What type of capacitor is used in power supply circuits to filter transient voltage spikes across the transformer secondary winding? A. High-value B. Trimmer C. Vacuum variable D. Suppressor 206. How do inductors become self-resonant? A. Through distributed electromagnetism B. Through eddy currents C. Through distributed capacitance D. Through parasitic hysteresis 207. What circuit component can change 120-VAC to 400-VAC? A. A transformer B. A capacitor C. A diode D. An SCR 208. What is the source of energy connected to in a transformer? A. To the secondary winding B. To the primary winding C. To the core D. To the plates 209. When there is no load attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called? A. Magnetizing current B. Direct current C. Excitation current D. Stabilizing current 210. In what terms are the primary and secondary windings ratings of a power transformer usually specified? A. Joules per second B. Peak inverse voltage C. Coulombs per second D. Volts or volt-amperes 211. What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power supply rectifier? A. The highest transient voltage the diode will handle B. 1.4 times the AC frequency C. The maximum voltage to be applied in the non-conducting direction D. 2.8 times the AC frequency 212. Why must silicon rectifier diodes be thermally protected? A. Because of their proximity to the power transformer B. Because they will be destroyed if they become too hot C. Because of their susceptibility to transient voltages D. Because of their use in high-voltage applications 213. What are the two major ratings for silicon diode rectifiers of the type used in power supply circuits which must not be exceeded? A. Peak load impedance; peak voltage B. Average power; average voltage C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage D. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current 214. Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with power supply rectifier diodes? A. To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage spikes B. To ensure that the current through each diode is about the same C. To smooth the output waveform D. To decrease the output voltage 215. What function do capacitors serve when resistors and capacitors are connected in parallel with high voltage power supply rectifier diodes? A. They double or triple the output voltage B. They block the alternating current C. They protect those diodes that develop back resistance faster than other diodes D. They regulate the output voltage 216. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? A. A steady DC voltage B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input C. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input D. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input 217. How many degrees of each cycle does a half-wave rectifier utilize? A. 90 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 270 degrees D. 360 degrees 218. How many degrees of each cycle does a full-wave rectifier utilize? A. 90 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 270 degrees D. 360 degrees 219. Where is a power supply bleeder resistor connected? A. Across the filter capacitor B. Across the power-supply input C. Between the transformer primary and secondary D. Across the inductor in the output filter 220. What components comprise a power supply filter network? A. Diodes B. Transformers and transistors C. Quartz crystals D. Capacitors and inductors 221. What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a full-wave power supply? A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply 222. What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a half-wave power supply? A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply 223. What should the impedance of a low-pass filter be as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted? A. Substantially higher B. About the same C. Substantially lower D. Twice the transmission line impedance 224. What is the term for alteration of the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information? A. Frequency modulation B. Phase modulation C. Amplitude rectification D. Amplitude modulation 225. What is the term for alteration of the phase of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information? A. Pulse modulation B. Phase modulation C. Phase rectification D. Amplitude modulation 226. What is the term for alteration of the frequency of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information? A. Phase rectification B. Frequency rectification C. Amplitude modulation D. Frequency modulation 227. In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating AF? A. Frequency shift keying B. Pulse modulation C. Frequency modulation D. Amplitude modulation 228. What determines the spectrum space occupied by each group of sidebands generated by a correctly operating emission A3E transmitter? A. The audio frequencies used to modulate the transmitter B. The phase angle between the audio and radio frequencies being mixed C. The radio frequencies used in the transmitter's VFO D. The CW keying speed 229. How much is the carrier suppressed in an emission J3E transmission? A. No more than 20 dB below peak output power B. No more than 30 dB below peak output power C. At least 40 dB below peak output power D. At least 60 dB below peak output power 230. What is one advantage of carrier suppression in an emission A3E transmission? A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion C. More power can be put into the sidebands D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal 231. Which one of the telephony emissions popular with amateurs occupies the narrowest band of frequencies? A. Single-sideband emission B. Double-sideband emission C. Phase-modulated emission D. Frequency-modulated emission 232. Which emission type is produced by a telephony transmitter having a balanced modulator followed by a 2.5-kHz bandpass filter? A. PM B. AM C. SSB D. FM 233. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier? A. Multiplex modulation B. Phase modulation C. Amplitude modulation D. Pulse modulation 234. What purpose does the carrier serve in an emission A3E transmission? A. The carrier separates the sidebands so they don't cancel in the receiver B. The carrier contains the modulation information C. The carrier maintains symmetry of the sidebands to prevent distortion D. The carrier serves as a reference signal for demodulation by an envelope detector 235. What signal component appears in the center of the frequency band of an emission A3E transmission? A. The lower sidebands B. The subcarrier C. The carrier D. The pilot tone 236. What sidebands are generated by an emission A3E transmitter with a 7250-kHz carrier modulated less than 100% by an 800-Hz pure sine wave? A. 7250.8 kHz and 7251.6 kHz B. 7250.0 kHz and 7250.8 kHz C. 7249.2 kHz and 7250.8 kHz D. 7248.4 kHz and 7249.2 kHz 237. How many times over the maximum deviation is the bandwidth of an emission F3E transmission? A. 1.5 B. At least 2.0 C. At least 4.0 D. The bandwidth cannot be determined without knowing the exact carrier and modulating frequencies involved 238. What is the total bandwidth of an emission F3E transmission having 5-kHz deviation and 3-kHz AF? A. 3 kHz B. 5 kHz C. 8 kHz D. 16 kHz 239. What happens to the shape of the RF envelope, as viewed on an oscilloscope, of an emission A3E transmission? A. The amplitude of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion to the modulating signal B. The amplitude of the envelope remains constant C. The brightness of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion to the modulating signal D. The frequency of the envelope increases and decreases in proportion to the amplitude of the modulating signal 240. What results when an emission J3E transmitter is overmodulated? A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects B. The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency response C. The signal has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio D. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth 241. What results when an emission A3E transmitter is overmodulated? A. The signal becomes louder with no other effects B. The signal becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth C. The signal occupies less bandwidth with poor high frequency response D. The transmitter's carrier frequency deviates 242. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz F3E transmitter? A. 41.67 Hz B. 416.7 Hz C. 5 kHz D. 12 kHz 243. What stage in a transmitter would translate a 5.3-MHz input signal to 14.3-MHz? A. A mixer B. A beat frequency oscillator C. A frequency multiplier D. A linear translator stage 244. How many frequency components are in the signal from an AF shift keyer at any instant? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 245. How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal? A. The frequency shift in Hertz must be at least four times the keying speed in WPM B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying speed C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts 246. Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20 meter band? A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna C. It discriminates against interference from other stations off to the side or behind D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands 247. What method is best suited to match an unbalanced coaxial feed line to a Yagi antenna? A. "T" match B. Delta match C. Hairpin match D. Gamma match 248. How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased? A. Use larger diameter elements B. Use closer element spacing C. Use traps on the elements D. Use tapered-diameter elements 249. How much gain over a half-wave dipole can a two-element cubical quad antenna provide? A. Approximately 0.6 dB B. Approximately 2 dB C. Approximately 6 dB D. Approximately 12 dB 250. How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4-MHz? A. 1.17 feet B. 11.7 feet C. 47 feet D. 469 feet 251. How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3-MHz? A. 1.75 feet B. 17.6 feet C. 23.4 feet D. 70.3 feet 252. How long is each side of a cubical quad antenna reflector element for 29.6-MHz? A. 8.23 feet B. 8.7 feet C. 9.7 feet D. 34.8 feet 253. How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 28.7-MHz? A. 8.75 feet B. 11.32 feet C. 11.7 feet D. 35 feet 254. How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 24.9-MHz? A. 10.09 feet B. 13.05 feet C. 13.45 feet D. 40.36 feet 255. How long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna reflector element for 14.1-MHz? A. 18.26 feet B. 23.76 feet C. 24.35 feet D. 73.05 feet 256. How long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0-MHz? A. Approximately 17 feet B. Approximately 33 feet C. Approximately 35 feet D. Approximately 66 feet 257. How long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1-MHz? A. Approximately 42 feet B. Approximately 21 feet C. Approximately 17 feet D. Approximately 10.5 feet 258. How long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1-MHz? A. Approximately 8.75 feet B. Approximately 16.6 feet C. Approximately 17.5 feet D. Approximately 35 feet 259. What is the feed-point impedance for a half-wavelength dipole HF antenna suspended horizontally one-quarter wavelength or more above the ground? A. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive B. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive and inductive C. Approximately 50 ohms, resistive and capacitive D. Approximately 73 ohms, resistive 260. What is the feed-point impedance of a quarter-wavelength vertical HF antenna with a horizontal ground plane? A. Approximately 18 ohms B. Approximately 36 ohms C. Approximately 52 ohms D. Approximately 72 ohms 261. What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane antenna? A. Sloping the radials downward lowers the radiation angle B. Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point impedance close to 300 ohms C. Sloping the radials downward allows rainwater to run off the antenna D. Sloping the radials downward brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms 262. What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when the radials slope downward from the base of the antenna? A. The feed-point impedance decreases B. The feed-point impedance increases C. The feed-point impedance stays the same D. The feed-point impedance becomes purely capacitive 263. Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical quad HF antenna? A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane C. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes D. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes 264. What is the radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF antenna? A. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates well in a figure-eight pattern at right angles to the antenna wire B. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates well in a figure-eight pattern off both ends of the antenna wire C. If it is installed parallel to the earth, it radiates equally well in all directions D. If it is installed parallel to the earth, the pattern will have two lobes on one side of the antenna wire, and one larger lobe on the other side 265. How does proximity to the ground affect the radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna? A. If the antenna is too far from the ground, the pattern becomes unpredictable B. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the ground, reflected radio waves from the ground distort the radiation pattern of the antenna C. A dipole antenna's radiation pattern is unaffected by its distance to the ground D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength from the ground, radiation off the ends of the wire is reduced 266. What does the term antenna front-to-back ratio mean? A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction 267. What effect upon the radiation pattern of an HF dipole antenna will a slightly smaller parasitic parallel element located a few feet away in the same horizontal plane have? A. The radiation pattern will not change appreciably B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground D. If the spacing is greater than 0.1 wavelength, a major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane to the side of the driven element toward the parasitic element 268. What is the meaning of the term main lobe as used in reference to a directional antenna? A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from a radiating antenna D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element 269. Upon what does the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna feed line depend? A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line 270. What is the characteristic impedance of various coaxial cables commonly used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations? A. Around 25 and 30 ohms B. Around 50 and 75 ohms C. Around 80 and 100 ohms D. Around 500 and 750 ohms 271. What effect, if any, does the length of a coaxial cable have upon its characteristic impedance? A. The length has no effect on the characteristic impedance B. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily above 144 MHz C. The length affects the characteristic impedance primarily below 144 MHz D. The length affects the characteristic impedance at any frequency 272. What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead? A. 50 ohms B. 75 ohms C. 100 ohms D. 300 ohms 273. What is the cause of power being reflected back down an antenna feed line? A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line 274. What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is connected to a resonant antenna having a 200 ohm feed-point impedance? A. 4:1 B. 1:4 C. 2:1 D. 1:2 275. What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is connected to a resonant antenna having a 10 ohm feed-point impedance? A. 2:1 B. 50:1 C. 1:5 D. 5:1 276. What will be the standing wave ratio when a 50 ohm feed line is connected to a resonant antenna having a 50 ohm feed-point impedance? A. 2:1 B. 50:50 C. 1:1 D. 0:0 277. How does the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable affect the amount of attenuation to the RF signal passing through it? A. The attenuation is affected more by the characteristic impedance at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz B. The attenuation is affected less by the characteristic impedance at frequencies above 144 MHz than at frequencies below 144 MHz C. The attenuation related to the characteristic impedance is about the same at all amateur frequencies below 1.5 GHz D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use 278. How does the amount of attenuation to a 2 meter signal passing through a coaxial cable differ from that to a 160 meter signal? A. The attenuation is greater at 2 meters B. The attenuation is less at 2 meters C. The attenuation is the same at both frequencies D. The difference in attenuation depends on the emission type in use 279. What is the effect on its attenuation when flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead is wet? A. Attenuation decreases slightly B. Attenuation remains the same C. Attenuation decreases sharply D. Attenuation increases 280. Why might silicone grease or automotive car wax be applied to flat-ribbon TV-type twinlead? A. To reduce "skin effect" losses on the conductors B. To reduce the buildup of dirt and moisture on the feed line C. To increase the velocity factor of the feed line D. To help dissipate heat during high-SWR operation 281. In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed? A. Bels/1000 ft B. dB/1000 ft C. Bels/100 ft D. dB/100 ft 282. As the operating frequency increases, what happens to the dielectric losses in a feed line? A. The losses decrease B. The losses decrease to zero C. The losses remain the same D. The losses increase 283. As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to the dielectric losses in a feed line? A. The losses decrease B. The losses increase C. The losses remain the same D. The losses become infinite 284. What condition must be satisfied to prevent standing waves of voltage and current on an antenna feed line? A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line 285. How is an inductively-coupled matching network used in an antenna system consisting of a center-fed resonant dipole and coaxial feed line? A. An inductively coupled matching network is not normally used in a resonant antenna system B. An inductively coupled matching network is used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level C. An inductively coupled matching network can be used to match the unbalanced condition at the transmitter output to the balanced condition required by the coaxial line D. An inductively coupled matching network can be used at the antenna feed point to tune out the radiation resistance 286. What is an antenna-transmission line mismatch? A. A condition where the feed-point impedance of the antenna does not equal the output impedance of the transmitter B. A condition where the output impedance of the transmitter does not equal the characteristic impedance of the feed line C. A condition where a half-wavelength antenna is being fed with a transmission line of some length other than one-quarter wavelength at the operating frequency D. A condition where the characteristic impedance of the feed line does not equal the feed-point impedance of the antenna