Programmer 7500/MAX_PROGRAMMERS.iso/PROGRAMS/UTILS/HAMRADIO/HAMFLA.ZIP/EXTRA.QUE

Text File | 1990-11-05 | 144.2 KB | 3,276 lines

1.     What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are
authorized to Amateur Extra control operators?
       A.     3525-3775 kHz
       B.     3500-3525 kHz
       C.     3700-3750 kHz
       D.     3500-3550 kHz
2.     What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are
authorized to Amateur Extra control operators?
       A.     3750-3775 kHz
       B.     3800-3850 kHz
       C.     3775-3800 kHz
       D.     3800-3825 kHz
3.     What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are
authorized to Amateur Extra control operators?
       A.     7000-7025 kHz
       B.     7000-7050 kHz
       C.     7025-7050 kHz
       D.     7100-7150 kHz
4.     What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are
authorized to Amateur Extra control operators?
       A.     14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
       B.     14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
       C.     14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
       D.     14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
5.     What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are
authorized to Amateur Extra control operators?
       A.     21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
       B.     21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
       C.     21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
       D.     21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz
6.     What is a spurious emission or radiation?
       A.     As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or
radiation falling  outside the amateur band being used
       B.     As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or
radiation other  than the fundamental that exceeds 25 microwatts,
regardless of frequency
       C.     As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or
radiation other  than the fundamental that exceeds 10 microwatts,
regardless of frequency
       D.     As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or
radiation falling  outside the amateur band that exceeds 25
microwatts
7.     How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or
radiation from  an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the
carrier frequency is below 30  MHz and the mean transmitted power
is equal to or greater than 5 watts?
       A.     At least 30 dB below the mean power of the
fundamental, and  less than 25 mW
       B.     At least 40 dB below the mean power of the
fundamental, and  less than 50 mW
       C.     At least 30 dB below the mean power of the
fundamental, and  less than 50 mW
       D.     At least 40 dB below the mean power of the
fundamental, and  less than 25 mW
8.     How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or
radiation  from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the
carrier frequency is above  30 MHz but below 225 MHz and the mean
transmitted power is greater than 25  watts?
       A.     At least 30 dB below mean power of the fundamental
       B.     At least 40 dB below mean power of the fundamental
       C.     At least 50 dB below mean power of the fundamental
       D.     At least 60 dB below mean power of the fundamental
9.     What can the FCC require the licensee to do if any spurious
radiation  from an amateur station causes harmful interference to
the reception of  another radio station?
       A.     Reduce the spurious emissions to 0 dB below the
fundamental
       B.     Observe quiet hours and pay a fine
       C.     Forfeit the station license and pay a fine
       D.     Eliminate or reduce the interference
10.    What are the points of communication for an amateur station?
       A.     Other amateur stations only
       B.     Other amateur stations and other stations authorized
by the  FCC to communicate with amateurs
       C.     Other amateur stations and stations in the Personal
Radio Service
       D.     Other amateur stations and stations in the Aviation
or Private  Land Mobile Radio Services
11.    With which stations may an amateur station communicate?
       A.     Amateur, RACES and FCC Monitoring stations
       B.     Amateur stations and any other station authorized by
the FCC to  communicate with amateur stations
       C.     Amateur stations only
       D.     Amateur stations and US Government stations
12.    Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
communicate  with a non-amateur station?
       A.     Only during emergencies and when the Commission has
authorized  the non-amateur station to communicate with amateur
stations
       B.     Under no circumstances
       C.     Only when the state governor has authorized that
station to  communicate with amateurs
       D.     Only during Public Service events in connection with
REACT  groups
13.    What rules must US citizens comply with when operating an
Amateur  Radio station in international waters?
       A.     The FCC rules contained in Part 15
       B.     The FCC rules contained in Part 97
       C.     The IARU rules governing international operation
       D.     There are no rules governing Amateur Radio operation
in  international waters
14.    An Amateur Radio station is installed on board a ship or
aircraft in a  compartment separate from the main radio
installation. What other conditions  must the amateur operator
comply with?
       A.     The Amateur Radio operation must be approved by the
master of  the ship of the captain of the aircraft
       B.     There must be an approved antenna switch included, so
the  amateur can use the ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting
only when the main  radios are not in use
       C.     The amateur station must have a power supply that is
completely  independent of the ship or aircraft power
       D.     The Amateur Radio operator must have an FCC Marine or
Aircraft  endorsement on his or her Amateur license
15.     What types of licenses or permits are required before an
amateur  operator may transmit from a vessel registered in the US?
       A.     No amateur license is required outside of
international waters
       B.     Any Amateur Radio license or Reciprocal Operating
Permit issued  by the FCC
       C.     Only amateur licensees General class or above may
transmit on a  vessel registered in the US
       D.     Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee may operate
aboard a vessel  registered in the US
16.    What is an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
       A.     An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur
license issued by  certain foreign governments to operate an
Amateur Radio station in the United  States and its possessions
       B.     An FCC permit to allow a United States licensed
amateur to  operate his station in a foreign nation, except Canada
       C.     An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to
handle  traffic between the United States and the amateur's own
nation, subject to FCC  rules on traffic handling and third-party
messages
       D.     An FCC permit to a commercial telecommunications
company  allowing that company to pay amateurs to handle traffic
during emergencies
17.    Who is eligible for an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
       A.     Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued
by a foreign  government
       B.     Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued
by a foreign  government with which the United States has a
reciprocal operating agreement,  providing that person is not a
United States citizen
       C.     Anyone who holds a valid Amateur Radio license issued
by a  foreign government with which the United States has a
reciprocal operating  agreement
       D.     Anyone other than a United States citizen who holds
a valid  Amateur Radio or shortwave listener's license issued by a
foreign government
18.    Under what circumstances, if any, is a US citizen holding a
foreign  Amateur Radio license eligible to obtain an FCC Reciprocal
Operating Permit?
       A.     A US Citizen is not eligible to obtain a Reciprocal
Operating  Permit for use in the United States
       B.     Only if the applicant brings his or her equipment
from the  foreign country
       C.     Only if that person is unable to qualify for a United
States  amateur license
       D.     If the applicant does not hold an FCC license as of
the date  of application, but had held a US amateur license other
than Novice class less  than 10 years before the date of
application
19.    What are the operator frequency privileges authorized by an
FCC  Reciprocal Operating Permit?
       A.     Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent United
States  amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by
endorsement on the  permit
       B.     Those that the holder of the Reciprocal Operating
Permit would have if he were in his own country
       C.     Only those frequencies permitted to United States
amateurs that the holder of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would
have in his own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
       D.     Only those frequencies approved by the International
Amateur Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
20.    How does an alien operator identify an Amateur Radio station
when operating under an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
       A.     By using only his or her own call
       B.     By using his or her own call, followed by the city
and state in the United States or possessions closest to his or her
present location
       C.     By using his or her own call, followed by the
letter(s) and number indicating the United States call-letter
district of his or her location at the time of the contact, with
the city and state nearest the location specified once during each
contact
       D.     By using his or her own call sign, followed by the
serial number of the Reciprocal Operating Permit and the call-
letter district number of his or her present location
21.    What is RACES?
       A.     An Amateur Radio network for providing emergency
communications during long-distance athletic contests
       B.     The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
       C.     The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
       D.     An Amateur Radio network providing emergency
communications for transoceanic boat or aircraft races
22.    What is the purpose of RACES?
       A.     To provide civil-defense communications during
emergencies
       B.     To provide emergency communications for transoceanic
boat or aircraft races
       C.     To provide routine and emergency communications for
long-distance athletic events
       D.     To provide routine and emergency communications for
large-scale international events, such as the Olympic games
23.    With what other organization must an Amateur Radio station
be registered before RACES registration is permitted?
       A.     The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
       B.     The US Department of Defense
       C.     A Civil Defense organization
       D.     The Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC Field Operations
Bureau
24.    Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?
       A.     Anyone who holds a valid FCC amateur operator's
license other than Novice
       B.     Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee
       C.     Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license other
than Novice and is certified by a Civil Defense organization
       D.     Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license and is
certified by a Civil Defense organization
25.    What additional operator privileges are granted to an
Amateur Extra Class operator registered with RACES?
       A.     None
       B.     Permission to operate CW on 5167.5 kHz
       C.     Permission to operate an unattended HF packet radio
station
       D.     Permission to operate on the 237-MHz Civil Defense
band
26.    What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?
       A.     Only those frequencies authorized by the ARRL Section
Emergency Coordinator
       B.     Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8
       C.     Only transmitting frequencies in the top 25 kHz of
each Amateur band
       D.     All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio
Service
27.    What type of emergency can cause a limitation on the
frequencies available for RACES operation?
       A.     An emergency in which the President invokes the War
Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of
1934
       B.     RACES operations must be confined to a single
frequency band if the emergency is contained within a single state
       C.     RACES operations must be conducted on a VHF band if
the emergency is confined to an area 25 miles or less in radius
       D.     The Red Cross may limit available frequencies if the
emergency involves no immediate danger of loss of life
28.    Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
       A.     Only Extra Class Amateur Radio stations
       B.     Any licensed Amateur Radio station except a station
licensed to a Novice
       C.     Any licensed Amateur Radio station certified by the
responsible Civil Defense organization
       D.     Any licensed Amateur Radio station other than a
station licensed to a Novice, providing the station is certified by
the responsible Civil Defense organization
29.    What are the points of communications for amateur stations
operated in RACES and certified by the responsible Civil Defense
organization as registered with that organization?
       A.     Any RACES, Civil Defense, or Disaster Communications
Service station
       B.     Any RACES stations and any FCC licensed amateur
stations except stations licensed to Novices
       C.     Any FCC licensed amateur station or a station in the
Disaster Communications Service
       D.     Any FCC licensed amateur station except stations
licensed to Novices
30.    What are permissible communications in RACES?
       A.     Any communications concerning local traffic nets
       B.     Any communications concerning the Amateur Radio
Emergency Service
       C.     Any communications concerning national defense and
security or immediate safety of people and property that are
authorized by the area Civil Defense organization
       D.     Any communications concerning national defense or
security or immediate safety of people or property but only when a
state of emergency has been declared by the President, the
governor, or other authorized official, and then only so long as
the state of emergency endures
31.    What are the purposes of the Amateur Satellite Service?
       A.     It is a radionavigation service using stations on
earth satellites for the same purposes as those of the Amateur
Radio Service
       B.     It is a radiocommunication service using stations on
earth satellites for weather information
       C.     It is a radiocommunication service using stations on
earth satellites for the same purpose as those of the Amateur Radio
Service
       D.     It is a radiolocation service using stations on earth
satellites for Amateur Radio operators engaged in satellite radar
experimentation
32.    What are some frequencies available for space operation?
       A.     7.0-7.1, 14.00-14.25, 21.00-21.45, 24.890-24.990,
28.00-29.70, 144-146, 435-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz
       B.     7.0-7.3, 21.00-21.45, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 432-438
and 24,000-24,050 MHz
       C.     All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio
Service, providing license-class, power and emission-type
restrictions are observed
       D.     Only frequencies available to Amateur Extra Class
licensees
33.    What is the term used to describe an earth-to-space Amateur
Radio communication that controls the functions of an amateur
satellite?
       A.     Space operation
       B.     Telecommand operation
       C.     Earth operation
       D.     Control operation
34.    Which amateur stations are eligible for telecommand
operation?
       A.     Any Amateur Radio licensee except Novice
       B.     Amateur Extra Class licensees only
       C.     Telecommand operation is not permitted in the amateur
satellite service
       D.     Any Amateur Radio station designated by the space
station licensee
35.    What term is used to describe space-to-earth transmissions
that communicate the results of measurements made by a station in
space operation?
       A.     Data transmission
       B.     Frame check sequence
       C.     Telemetry
       D.     Telecommand operation
36.    What is the term used to describe Amateur Radio
communication from a station that is beyond the major portion of
the earth's atmosphere?
       A.     EME
       B.     Exospheric operation
       C.     Downlink
       D.     Space operation
37.    Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?
       A.     Any licensee except Novice
       B.     General, Advanced and Extra Class licensees only
       C.     Advanced and Extra Class licensees only
       D.     Amateur Extra Class licensees only
38.    When must the licensee of a station scheduled for space
operation give the FCC written pre-space notification?
       A.     3 months to 72 hours prior to initiating space
operation
       B.     6 months to 3 months prior to initiating space
operation
       C.     12 months to 3 months prior to initiating space
operation
       D.     27 months to 3 months prior to initiating space
operation
39.    When must the licensee of a station in space operation give
the FCC written in-space notification?
       A.     No later than 24 hours following initiation of space
operation
       B.     No later than 72 hours following initiation of space
operation
       C.     No later than 7 days following initiation of space
operation
       D.     No later than 30 days following initiation of space
operation
40.    When must the licensee of a station in space operation give
the FCC written post-space notification?
       A.     No later than 48 hours after termination is complete,
under normal circumstances
       B.     No later than 72 hours after termination is complete,
under normal circumstances
       C.     No later than 7 days after termination is complete,
under normal circumstances
       D.     No later than 3 months after termination is complete,
under normal circumstances
41.    What term describes earth-to-space-to-earth Amateur Radio
communication by means of radio signals automatically retransmitted
by a station in space operation?
       A.     Earth operation
       B.     ESE
       C.     Repeater operation
       D.     Auxiliary operation
42.    Which amateur stations are eligible for earth operation?
       A.     Any Amateur Radio station
       B.     Amateur Extra Class licensees only
       C.     Any licensee except Novice
       D.     A special license issued by the FCC is required
before any Amateur Radio station is placed in earth operation
43.    What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator?
       A.     An organization that is authorized to administer FCC
Amateur Radio license examinations to candidates for the Novice
license
       B.     An organization that is authorized to administer FCC
Amateur Radio examinations for any class of license other than
Novice
       C.     An organization that has entered into an agreement
with the FCC to coordinate the efforts of Volunteer Examiners in
preparing and administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator
licenses
       D.     An organization that has entered into an agreement
with the FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in
preparing and administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator
licenses other than Novice
44.    What are the requirements to be a VEC
       A.     Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur
equipment or in the coordination of amateur activities throughout
at least one call-letter district; and agree to abide by FCC Rules
concerning administration of Amateur Radio examinations
       B.     Be organized at least partially for the purpose of
furthering Amateur Radio; be at least regional in scope; and agree
to abide by FCC Rules concerning coordination of Amateur Radio
examinations
       C.     Be organized at least partially for the purpose of
furthering Amateur Radio; be, at the most, county-wide in scope;
and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning administration of
Amateur Radio examinations
       D.     Be engaged in a business related to Amateur Radio;
and agree to administer Amateur Radio examinations in accordance
with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district
45.    What are the functions of a VEC?
       A.     Accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates'
application forms, answer sheets and test results and forward the
applications to the FCC; maintain pools of questions for Amateur
Radio examinations; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance
with FCC Rules
       B.     Assemble, print and sell FCC-approved examination
forms; accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' answer
sheets and forward them to the FCC; screen applications for
completeness and authenticity; and perform other clerical tasks in
accordance with FCC Rules
       C.     Accredit Volunteer Examiners; certify that examiners'
equipment is type-accepted by the FCC; assemble, print and
distribute FCC-approved examination forms; and perform other
clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules
       D.     Maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio
examinations; administer code and theory examinations; score and
forward the test papers to the FCC so that the appropriate license
may be issued to each successful candidate
46.    Where are the questions listed that must be used in written
examinations?
       A.     In the appropriate VEC question pool
       B.     In PR Bulletin 1035C
       C.     In PL 97-259
       D.     In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
47.    How is an Element 3(A) examination prepared?
       A.     By Advanced or Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or
Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the
appropriate VEC question pool
       B.     By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       C.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       D.     By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate
VEC question pool
48.    How is an Element 3(B) examination prepared?
       A.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-
Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool
       B.     By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       C.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       D.     By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate
VEC question pool
49.    How is an Element 4(A) examination prepared?
       A.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-
Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool
       B.     By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       C.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       D.     By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate
VEC question pool
50.    How is an Element 4(B) examination prepared?
       A.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-
Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC
question pool
       B.     By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       C.     By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting
questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
       D.     By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate
VEC question pool
51.    What organization coordinates the dates and times for
scheduling Amateur Radio examinations?
       A.     The FCC
       B.     A VEC
       C.     The IARU
       D.     Local radio clubs
52.    Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to
accredit a person as a VE on the basis of membership in an Amateur
Radio organization?
       A.     Under no circumstances
       B.     Only when the prospective VE is an ARRL member
       C.     Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the
local Amateur Radio club
       D.     Only when the club is at least regional in scope
53.    Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to
accredit a person as a VE on the basis of lack of membership in an
Amateur Radio organization?
       A.     Under no circumstances
       B.     Only when the prospective VE is not an ARRL member
       C.     Only when the club is at least regional in scope
       D.     Only when the prospective VE is a not a member of the
local Amateur Radio club giving the examinations
54.    Under what circumstance, if any, may an organization engaged
in the manufacture of equipment used in connection with Amateur
Radio transmissions be a VEC?
       A.     Under no circumstances
       B.     If the organization's amateur-related sales are very
small
       C.     If the organization is manufacturing very specialized
amateur equipment
       D.     Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have
been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest
55.    Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who is an
employee of a company that is engaged in the distribution of
equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions be a
VE?
       A.     Under no circumstances
       B.     Only if the employee's work is not directly related
to that part of the company involved in the manufacture or
distribution of amateur equipment
       C.     Only if the employee has no financial interest in the
company
       D.     Only if the employee is an Extra Class licensee
56.    Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who owns a
significant interest in a company that is engaged in the
preparation of publications used in preparation for obtaining an
amateur operator license be a VE?
       A.     Under no circumstances
       B.     Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are
very small
       C.     Only if the organization is publishing very
specialized material
       D.     Only if the person is an Extra Class licensee
57.    Under what circumstances, if any, may an organization
engaged in the distribution of publications used in preparation for
obtaining an amateur operator license be a VEC?
       A.     Under no circumstances
       B.     Only if the organization's amateur publishing
business is very small
       C.     Only if the organization is selling the publication
at cost to examinees
       D.     Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have
been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest
58.    Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses
incurred in preparing, processing or administering examinations?
       A.     Examinees
       B.     FCC
       C.     ARRL
       D.     FCC and Examiners
59.    What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts
reimbursement and fails to provide the annual expense
certification?
       A.     Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year
       B.     Disaccredit the VE
       C.     Suspend the VE's accreditation and report the
information to the FCC
       D.     Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months
60.    What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who
accepts reimbursement?
       A.     All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from
the examinees
       B.     All out-of-pocket expenses only
       C.     Reimbursements from examiners only
       D.     FCC reimbursements only
61.    For what period of time must a VE maintain records of out-
of-pocket expenses and reimbursements for each examination session
for which reimbursement is accepted?
       A.     1 year
       B.     2 years
       C.     3 years
       D.     4 years
62.    By what date each year must a VE forward to the VEC a
certification concerning expenses for which reimbursement was
accepted?
       A.     December 15 following the year for which the
reimbursement was accepted
       B.     January 15 following the year for which the
reimbursement was accepted
       C.     April 15 following the year for which the
reimbursement was accepted
       D.     October 15 following the year for which the
reimbursement was accepted
63.    For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-
pocket expenses?
       A.     Preparing, processing or administering examinations
above the Novice class
       B.     Preparing, processing or administering examinations
including the Novice class
       C.     A VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
       D.     Only for preparation of examination elements
64.    What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
       A.     A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a
VEC to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio
licenses
       B.     An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC
to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
       C.     An Amateur Radio operator who administers
examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses for a fee
       D.     An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to
administer Amateur Radio examinations
65.    What is an accredited VE?
       A.     A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a
VEC to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio
licenses
       B.     An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC
to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses
       C.     An Amateur Radio operator who administers
examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses for a fee
       D.     An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to
administer Amateur Radio examinations
66.    What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for a Technician class operator
license?
       A.     The Volunteer Examiner must be a Novice class
licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
       B.     The Volunteer Examiner must be an Advanced or Extra
Class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
       C.     The Volunteer Examiner must be an Extra Class
licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
       D.     The Volunteer Examiner must be a General class
licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
67.    What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for a General class operator license?
       A.     The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and
be accredited by a VEC
       B.     The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be
accredited by a VEC
       C.     The examiner must hold a General class license and be
accredited by a VEC
       D.     The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to
administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner
may administer the CW test element
68.    What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for an Advanced class operator
license?
       A.     The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and
be accredited by a VEC
       B.     The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be
accredited by a VEC
       C.     The examiner must hold a General class license and be
accredited by a VEC
       D.     The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to
administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner
may administer the CW test element
69.    What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner
administering an examination for an Amateur Extra Class operator
license?
       A.     The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and
be accredited by a VEC
       B.     The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be
accredited by a VEC
       C.     The examiner must hold a General class license and be
accredited by a VEC
       D.     The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to
administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner
may administer the CW test element
70.    When is VE accreditation necessary?
       A.     Always in order to administer a Technician or higher
class license examination
       B.     Always in order to administer a Novice or higher
class license examination
       C.     Sometimes in order to administer an Advanced or
higher class license examination
       D.     VE accreditation is not necessary in order to
administer a General or higher class license examination
71.    What is VE accreditation?
       A.     The process by which all Advanced and Extra Class
licensees are automatically given permission to conduct Amateur
Radio examinations
       B.     The process by which the FCC tests volunteers who
wish to coordinate Amateur Radio license examinations
       C.     The process by which the prospective VE requests his
or her requirements for accreditation
       D.     The process by which each VEC makes sure its VEs meet
FCC requirements to serve as Volunteer Examiners
72.    What are the requirements for VE accreditation?
       A.     Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least
18 years old; not have any conflict of interest; and never had his
or her amateur license suspended or revoked
       B.     Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least
16 years old; and not have any conflict of interest
       C.     Hold an Extra Class license or higher; be at least 18
years old; and be a member of ARRL
       D.     There are no requirements for accreditation, other
than holding a General or higher class license
73.    The services of which persons seeking to be VEs will not be
accepted by the FCC?
       A.     Persons with Advanced class licenses
       B.     Persons being between 18 and 21 years of age
       C.     Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses
suspended or revoked
       D.     Persons who are employees of the Federal Government
74.    Under what circumstances, if any, may a person be
compensated for services as a VE?
       A.     When the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test
session
       B.     When the VE loses a day's pay to administer the exam
       C.     When the VE spends many hours preparing for the test
session
       D.     Under no circumstances
75.    How much money, if any, may a person accept for services as
a VE?
       A.     None
       B.     Up to a half day's pay if the VE spends more than 4
hours at the test session
       C.     Up to a full day's pay if the VE spends more than 4
hours preparing for the test session
       D.     Up to $50 if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the
test session
76.    What is an Element 1(A) examination intended to prove?
       A.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 5 WPM
       B.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 13 WPM
       C.     The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and
regulations
       D.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 20 WPM
77.    What is an Element 1(B) examination intended to prove?
       A.     The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and
regulations
       B.     The applicant's knowledge of General class theory and
regulations
       C.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 5 WPM
       D.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 13 WPM
78.    What is an Element 1(C) examination intended to prove?
       A.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 20 WPM
       B.     The applicant's knowledge of Amateur Extra Class
theory and regulations
       C.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 13 WPM
       D.     The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 5 WPM
79.    What is Examination Element 2?
       A.     The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       B.     The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       C.     The written examination for the Novice class operator
license
       D.     The written examination for the Technician class
operator license
80.    What is Examination Element 3(A)?
       A.     The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       B.     The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       C.     The written examination for the Technician class
operator license
       D.     The written examination for the General class
operator license
81.    What is Examination Element 3(B)?
       A.     The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       B.     The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       C.     The written examination for the Technician class
operator license
       D.     The written examination for the General class
operator license
82.    What is Examination Element 4(A)?
       A.     The written examination for the Technician class
operator license
       B.     The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       C.     The written examination for the Advanced class
operator license
       D.     The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class
operator license
83.    What is Examination Element 4(B)?
       A.     The written examination for the Technician class
operator license
       B.     The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination
       C.     The written examination for the Advanced class
operator license
       D.     The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class
operator license
84.    Who must prepare Examination Element 1(B)?
       A.     Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       B.     Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       C.     The FCC
       D.     The Field Operations Bureau
85.    Who must prepare Examination Element 1(C)?
       A.     The FCC
       B.     The Field Operations Bureau
       C.     Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer
Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       D.     Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
86.    Who must prepare Examination Element 3(A)?
       A.     Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as
Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       B.     The FCC
       C.     The Field Operations Bureau
       D.     Advanced or General class licensees serving as
Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
87.    Who must prepare Examination Element 3(B)?
       A.     Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       B.     The FCC
       C.     The Field Operations Bureau
       D.     Advanced or General class licensees serving as
Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
88.    Who must prepare Examination Element 4(A)?
       A.     Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as
Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       B.     The FCC
       C.     The Field Operations Bureau
       D.     Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
89.    Who must prepare Examination Element 4(B)?
       A.     Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as
Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
       B.     The FCC
       C.     The Field Operations Bureau
       D.     Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners,
or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators
90.    What examination elements are required for an Amateur Extra
Class operator license?
       A.     1(C) and 4(B)
       B.     3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
       C.     1(B), 2, 3(A), 4(A) and 4(B)
       D.     1(C), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
91.    What examination elements are required for an Advanced class
operator license?
       A.     1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
       B.     1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
       C.     1(B) and 4(A)
       D.     1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
92.    What examination elements are required for a General class
operator license?
       A.     1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
       B.     1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B)
       C.     1(A), 3(A) and 3(B)
       D.     1(B), 3(A) and 3(B)
93.    What examination elements are required for a Technician
class operator license?
       A.     1(A) and 2
       B.     1(A) and 3(A)
       C.     1(A), 2 and 3(A)
       D.     2 and 3(A)
94.    What examination credit must be given to an applicant who
holds a valid Novice class operator license?
       A.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and
2
       B.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and
3(A)
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and
2
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and
3(A)
95.    What examination credit must be given to an applicant who
holds a valid Technician class operator license issued after March
20, 1987?
       A.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and
2
       B.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2
and 3(A)
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2
and 3(A)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B),
3(A) and 3(B)
96.    What examination credit must be given to an applicant who
holds a valid Technician class operator license issued before March
21, 1987?
       A.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2
and 3(B)
       B.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2,
3(A) and 3(B)
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2,
3(A) and 4(A)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B),
3(A) and 3(B)
97.    What examination credit must be given to an applicant who
holds a valid General class operator license?
       A.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2,
3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
       B.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A),
3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2,
3(A), 3(B) and 4(B)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2,
3(A) and 3(B)
98.    What examination credit must be given to an applicant who
holds a valid Advanced class operator license?
       A.     Credit for successful completion of Element 4(A)
       B.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and
4(A)
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2,
3(A), 3(B) and 4(A)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(C),
3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
99.    What examination credit, if any, may be given to an
applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by
another country?
       A.     Credit for successful completion of any elements that
may be identical to those required for U.S. licensees
       B.     No credit
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A),
1(B) and 1(C)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 2, 3(A),
3(B), 4(A) and 4(B)
100.   What examination credit, if any, may be given to an
applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by any
other United States government agency than the FCC?
       A.     No credit
       B.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A),
1(B) or 1(C)
       C.     Credit for successful completion of Elements 4(A) and
4(B)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of Element 1(C)
101.   What examination credit must be given to an applicant who
holds a valid FCC commercial radiotelegraph license?
       A.     No credit
       B.     Credit for successful completion of element 1(B) only
       C.     Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A),
1(B) or 1(C)
       D.     Credit for successful completion of element 1(A) only
102.   What examination credit must be given to the holder of a
valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination?
       A.     Credit for previously completed written examination
elements only
       B.     Credit for the code speed associated with the
previously completed telegraphy examination elements only
       C.     Credit for previously completed written and
telegraphy examination elements only
       D.     Credit for previously completed commercial
examination elements only
103.   Who determines where and when examinations for amateur
operator licenses are to be administered?
       A.     The FCC
       B.     The Section Manager
       C.     The applicants
       D.     The administering Volunteer Examiner Team
104.   Where must the examiners be and what must they be doing
during an examination?
       A.     The examiners must be present and observing the
candidate(s) throughout the entire examination
       B.     The examiners must be absent to allow the
candidate(s) to complete the entire examination in accordance with
the traditional honor system
       C.     The examiners must be present to observe the
candidate(s) throughout the administration of telegraphy
examination elements only
       D.     The examiners must be present to observe the
candidate(s) throughout the administration of written examination
elements only
105.   Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary
supervision during an examination?
       A.     The VEC
       B.     The FCC
       C.     The administering Volunteer Examiners
       D.     The candidates and the administering Volunteer
Examiners
106.   What should an examiner do when a candidate fails to comply
with the examiner's instructions?
       A.     Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply
with the examiner's instructions will result in termination of the
examination
       B.     Immediately terminate the examination
       C.     Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but
refuse to issue a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination for any elements passed by fraudulent means
       D.     Immediately terminate the examination and report the
violation to federal law enforcement officials
107.   What must the candidate do at the completion of the
examination?
       A.     Complete a brief written evaluation of the
examination session
       B.     Return all test papers to the examiners
       C.     Return all test papers to the examiners and wait for
them to be graded before leaving the examination site
       D.     Pay the registration fee
108.   When must the test papers be graded?
       A.     Within 5 days of completion of an examination element
       B.     Within 30 days of completion of an examination
element
       C.     Immediately upon completion of an examination element
       D.     Within 10 days of completion of an examination
element
109.   Who must grade the test papers?
       A.     The ARRL
       B.     The administering Volunteer Examiners
       C.     The Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator
       D.     The FCC
110.   How do the examiners inform a candidate who does not score
a passing grade?
       A.     Give the percentage of the questions answered
correctly and return the application to the candidate
       B.     Give the percentage of the questions answered
incorrectly and return the application to the candidate
       C.     Tell the candidate that he or she failed and return
the application to the candidate
       D.     Show how the incorrect answers should have been
answered and give a copy of the corrected answer sheet to the
candidate
111.   What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a
passing grade?
       A.     Give the percentage of the questions answered
correctly and return the application to the candidate
       B.     Tell the candidate that he or she passed
       C.     Issue the candidate an operator license
       D.     Issue the candidate a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination for the appropriate exam element(s)
112.   Within what time limit after administering an exam must the
examiners submit the applications and test papers from successful
candidates to the VEC?
       A.     Within 10 days
       B.     Within 15 days
       C.     Within 30 days
       D.     Within 90 days
113.   To whom do the examiners submit successful candidates'
applications and test papers?
       A.     To the candidate
       B.     To the coordinating VEC
       C.     To the local radio club
       D.     To the regional Section Manager
114.   When an applicant passes an examination to upgrade his or
her operator license, under what authority may he or she be the
control operator of an amateur station with the privileges of the
higher operator class?
       A.     That of the Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination issued by the VE Team that administered the examination
       B.     That of the ARRL
       C.     Applicants already licensed in the Amateur Radio
Service may not use their newly earned privileges until they
receive their permanent amateur station and operator licenses
       D.     Applicants may only use their newly earned privileges
during emergencies pending issuance of their permanent amateur
station and operator licenses
115.   What is a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination?
       A.     A document printed by the FCC
       B.     A document required for already licensed applicants
operating with privileges of an amateur operator class higher than
that of their permanent amateur operator licenses
       C.     A document a candidate may use for an indefinite
period of time to receive credit for successful completion of any
written element
       D.     A permanent Amateur Radio station and operator
license certificate issued to a newly-upgraded licensee by the FCC
within 90 days of the completion of the examination
116.   How long may a successful applicant operate a station under
Section 97.35 with the rights and privileges of the higher operator
class for which the applicant has passed the appropriate
examinations?
       A.     30 days or until issuance of a permanent operator and
station license, whichever comes first
       B.     3 months or until issuance of the permanent operator
and station license, whichever comes first
       C.     6 months or until issuance of the permanent operator
and station license, whichever comes first
       D.     1 year or until issuance of the permanent operator
and station license, whichever comes first
117.   How must the station call sign be amended when operating
under the temporary authority authorized by Section 97.35?
       A.     The applicant must use an identifier code as a prefix
to his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "interim
AE KA1MJP"
       B.     The applicant must use an identifier code as a suffix
to his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "KA1MJP
temporary AE"
       C.     By adding after the call sign, when using voice, the
phrase "operating temporary Technician, General, Advanced or Extra"
       D.     By adding to the call sign, when using CW, the slant
bar followed by the letters T, G, A or E
118.   What is an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
       A.     A pass from west to east
       B.     A pass from east to west
       C.     A pass from south to north
       D.     A pass from north to south
119.   What is a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
       A.     A pass from north to south
       B.     A pass from west to east
       C.     A pass from east to west
       D.     A pass from south to north
120.   What is the period of an amateur satellite?
       A.     An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees west
longitude to 145 degrees west longitude
       B.     The point on an orbit where satellite height is
minimum
       C.     The amount of time it takes for a satellite to
complete one orbit
       D.     The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee
to apogee
121.   What is Mode A in an amateur satellite?
       A.     Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 2 meters
       B.     The lowest frequency used in Phase 3 transponders
       C.     The highest frequency used in Phase 3 translators
       D.     Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 10 meters
122.   What is Mode B in an amateur satellite?
       A.     Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 2 meters
       B.     Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a
satellite that retransmits on 2 meters
       C.     The beacon output
       D.     A codestore device used to record messages
123.   What is Mode J in an amateur satellite?
       A.     Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a
satellite that retransmits on 2 meters
       B.     Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 70 centimeters
       C.     Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 10 meters
       D.     Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a
satellite that retransmits on 10 meters
124.   What is Mode L in an amateur satellite?
       A.     Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a
satellite that retransmits on 10 meters
       B.     Operation through a 23-centimeter receiver on a
satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters
       C.     Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a
satellite that retransmits on 23 centimeters
       D.     Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite
that retransmits on 70 centimeters
125.   What is a linear transponder?
       A.     A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
       B.     A device that receives and retransmits signals of any
mode in a certain passband
       C.     An amplifier for SSB transmissions
       D.     A device used to change FM to SSB
126.   What are the two basic types of linear transponders used in
amateur satellites?
       A.     Inverting and non-inverting
       B.     Geostationary and elliptical
       C.     Phase 2 and Phase 3
       D.     Amplitude modulated and frequency modulated
127.   Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several
kHz during a low-earth-orbit amateur satellite pass?
       A.     The distance between the satellite and ground station
is changing, causing the Kepler effect
       B.     The distance between the satellite and ground station
is changing, causing the Bernoulli effect
       C.     The distance between the satellite and ground station
is changing, causing the Boyles' law effect
       D.     The distance between the satellite and ground station
is changing, causing the Doppler effect
128.   Why does the received signal from a Phase III amateur
satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?
       A.     Because the satellite is rotating
       B.     Because of ionospheric absorption
       C.     Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
       D.     Because of the Doppler effect
129.   What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of
spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
       A.     A nonpolarized antenna
       B.     A circularly polarized antenna
       C.     An isotropic antenna
       D.     A log-periodic dipole array
130.   How often is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan
television system?
       A.     30 times per second
       B.     60 times per second
       C.     90 times per second
       D.     120 times per second
131.   How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television
frame?
       A.     30
       B.     60
       C.     525
       D.     1050
132.   How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-
scan television system?
       A.     By scanning the field from top to bottom
       B.     By scanning the field from bottom to top
       C.     By scanning even numbered lines in one field and odd
numbered ones in the next
       D.     By scanning from left to right in one field and right
to left in the next
133.   What is blanking in a video signal?
       A.     Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync-
pulses
       B.     Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling
from right to left and from bottom to top
       C.     Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a
transmission
       D.     Transmitting a black and white test pattern
134.   What is the standard video voltage level between the sync
tip and the whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator
inputs?
       A.     1 volt peak-to-peak
       B.     120 IEEE units
       C.     12 volts DC
       D.     5 volts RMS
135.   What is the bandwidth of a fast-scan television
transmission?
       A.     3 kHz
       B.     10 kHz
       C.     25 kHz
       D.     6 MHz
136.   What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
       A.     0%
       B.     12.5%
       C.     70%
       D.     100%
137.   What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
       A.     0%
       B.     12.5%
       C.     70%
       D.     100%
138.   What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for
blanking?
       A.     0%
       B.     12.5%
       C.     75%
       D.     100%
139.   What is the maximum separation between two stations
communicating by moonbounce?
       A.     500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
       B.     2,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
       C.     5,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
       D.     Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual
lunar window
140.   What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
       A.     A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
       B.     A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
       C.     A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
       D.     The returning echo is several Hertz lower in
frequency than the transmitted signal
141.   What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?
       A.     When the moon is at perigee
       B.     When the moon is full
       C.     When the moon is at apogee
       D.     When the weather at both stations is clear
142.   What type of receiving system is required for EME
communications?
       A.     Equipment capable of reception on 14 MHz
       B.     Equipment with very low dynamic range
       C.     Equipment with very low gain
       D.     Equipment with very low noise figures
143.   What type of transmitting system is required for EME
communications?
       A.     A transmitting system capable of operation on the 21
MHz band
       B.     A transmitting system capable of producing a very
high ERP
       C.     A transmitting system using an unmodulated carrier
       D.     A transmitting system with a high second harmonic
output
144.   When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a
cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the
ionosphere?
       A.     The F1 layer
       B.     The E layer
       C.     The F2 layer
       D.     The D layer
145.   Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
       A.     1.8 - 1.9 MHz
       B.     10 - 14 MHz
       C.     28 - 148 MHz
       D.     220 - 450 MHz
146.   What is transequatorial propagation?
       A.     Propagation between two points at approximately the
same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
       B.     Propagation between two points on the magnetic
equator
       C.     Propagation between two continents by way of ducts
along the magnetic equator
       D.     Propagation between any two stations at the same
latitude
147.   What is the maximum range for signals using transequatorial
propagation?
       A.     About 1,000 miles
       B.     About 2,500 miles
       C.     About 5,000 miles
       D.     About 7,500 miles
148.   What is the best time of day for transequatorial
propagation?
       A.     Morning
       B.     Noon
       C.     Afternoon or early evening
       D.     Trans-equatorial propagation only works at night
149.   If a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees
away from a station to receive the strongest signals, what type of
propagation is probably occurring?
       A.     Transequatorial propagation
       B.     Sporadic-E propagation
       C.     Long-path propagation
       D.     Auroral propagation
150.   What is the name for a type of propagation in which radio
signals travel along the terminator, which separates daylight from
darkness?
       A.     Transequatorial propagation
       B.     Sporadic-E propagation
       C.     Long-path propagation
       D.     Gray-line propagation
151.   How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional
time-domain oscilloscope?
       A.     The oscilloscope is used to display electrical
signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric
reflection
       B.     The oscilloscope is used to display electrical
signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used
to display electrical signals in the time domain
       C.     The oscilloscope is used to display electrical
signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to
display electrical signals in the frequency domain
       D.     The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio
frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio
frequencies
152.   What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer
display?
       A.     Amplitude
       B.     Voltage
       C.     Resonance
       D.     Frequency
153.   What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
       A.     Amplitude
       B.     Duration
       C.     Frequency
       D.     Time
154.   What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals
in the output of a radio transmitter?
       A.     A spectrum analyzer
       B.     A wattmeter
       C.     A logic analyzer
       D.     A time-domain reflectometer
155.   What test instrument is used to display intermodulation
distortion products from an SSB transmitter?
       A.     A wattmeter
       B.     A spectrum analyzer
       C.     A logic analyzer
       D.     A time-domain reflectometer
156.   What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for
monitoring logic states in a circuit?
       A.     A logic probe has fewer leads to connect to a circuit
than a voltmeter
       B.     A logic probe can be used to test analog and digital
circuits
       C.     A logic probe can be powered by commercial AC lines
       D.     A logic probe is smaller and shows a simplified
readout
157.   What piece of test equipment can be used to directly
indicate high and low logic states?
       A.     A galvanometer
       B.     An electroscope
       C.     A logic probe
       D.     A Wheatstone bridge
158.   What is a logic probe used to indicate?
       A.     A short-circuit fault in a digital-logic circuit
       B.     An open-circuit failure in a digital-logic circuit
       C.     A high-impedance ground loop
       D.     High and low logic states in a digital-logic circuit
159.   What piece of test equipment besides an oscilloscope can be
used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital-logic circuit?
       A.     A logic probe
       B.     A galvanometer
       C.     An electroscope
       D.     A Wheatstone bridge
160.   What is one of the most significant problems you might
encounter when you try to receive signals with a mobile station?
       A.     Ignition noise
       B.     Doppler shift
       C.     Radar interference
       D.     Mechanical vibrations
161.   What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical
noise in a mobile station?
       A.     Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
       B.     Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each
other
       C.     Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic
surfaces
       D.     Install filter capacitors in series with all DC
wiring
162.   How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise?
       A.     Install them in the resistive high voltage cable
every 2 years
       B.     Install them between the starter solenoid and the
starter motor
       C.     Install them in the primary and secondary ignition
leads
       D.     Install them in the antenna lead to the radio
163.   How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting
metal surfaces in a vehicle reduce spark plug noise?
       A.     It reduces the spark gap distance, causing a lower
frequency spark
       B.     It helps radiate the spark plug noise away from the
vehicle
       C.     It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body
       D.     It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances
in the vehicle
164.   How can alternator whine be minimized?
       A.     By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery
by the longest possible path
       B.     By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery
by the shortest possible path
       C.     By installing a high pass filter in series with the
radio's DC power lead to the vehicle's electrical system
       D.     By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC
power lead
165.   How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile
alternator be suppressed?
       A.     By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC
power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
       B.     By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery
by the longest possible path and by installing a blocking capacitor
in series with the positive lead
       C.     By installing a high pass filter in series with the
radio's power lead to the vehicle's electrical system and by
installing a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
       D.     By connecting the radio power leads directly to the
battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator
leads
166.   What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
       A.     Sunspots
       B.     Thunderstorms
       C.     Airplanes
       D.     Meteor showers
167.   How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem
is being generated within your home?
       A.     Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain
reflectometer
       B.     Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
       C.     Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a
battery-operated radio
       D.     Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer
168.   What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for
direction finding?
       A.     It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
       B.     It is non-rotatable
       C.     It receives equally well in all directions
       D.     It is practical for use only on VHF bands
169.   What directional pattern is desirable for a direction-
finding antenna?
       A.     A non-cardioid pattern
       B.     Good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
       C.     Good top-to-bottom and front-to-side ratios
       D.     Shallow nulls
170.   What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
       A.     Using the geometric angle of ground waves and sky
waves emanating from the same source to locate the signal source
       B.     A fixed receiving station uses three beam headings to
plot the signal source on a map
       C.     Beam headings from several receiving locations are
used to plot the signal source on a map
       D.     The use of three vertical antennas to indicate the
location of the signal source
171.   Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for
direction finding?
       A.     It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
       B.     It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
       C.     It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna
pattern nulls
       D.     It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong
signals
172.   What is a sense antenna?
       A.     A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce
a cardioid reception pattern
       B.     A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to
produce a cardioid reception pattern
       C.     A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to
produce an omnidirectional reception pattern
       D.     A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to
produce a cardioid reception pattern
173.   What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception
in radio direction finding?
       A.     A log-periodic dipole array
       B.     An isotropic antenna
       C.     A circularly polarized antenna
       D.     An Adcock antenna
174.   What is a loop antenna?
       A.     A circularly polarized antenna
       B.     A coil of wire used as an antenna in FM broadcast
receivers
       C.     A wire loop used in radio direction finding
       D.     An antenna coupled to the feed line through an
inductive loop of wire
175.   How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased?
       A.     By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
       B.     By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop
while reducing the area of the loop structure
       C.     By reducing either the number of wire turns in the
loop, or the area of the loop structure
       D.     By increasing either the number of wire turns in the
loop, or the area of the loop structure
176.   Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable
for a direction-finding system?
       A.     The broad side responses of the cardioid pattern can
be aimed at the desired station
       B.     The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint
the direction of the desired station
       C.     The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can
pinpoint the direction of the desired station
       D.     The high radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is
useful for short-distance direction finding
177.   What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding?
       A.     Homogeneous terrain
       B.     Smooth grassy terrain
       C.     Varied terrain
       D.     Terrain with no buildings or mountains
178.   What is the photoconductive effect?
       A.     The conversion of photon energy to electromotive
energy
       B.     The increased conductivity of an illuminated
semiconductor junction
       C.     The conversion of electromotive energy to photon
energy
       D.     The decreased conductivity of an illuminated
semiconductor junction
179.   What happens to photoconductive material when light shines
on it?
       A.     The conductivity of the material increases
       B.     The conductivity of the material decreases
       C.     The conductivity of the material stays the same
       D.     The conductivity of the material becomes temperature
dependent
180.   What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material
when light shines on it?
       A.     It increases
       B.     It becomes temperature dependent
       C.     It stays the same
       D.     It decreases
181.   What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction
when it is illuminated?
       A.     It stays the same
       B.     It becomes temperature dependent
       C.     It increases
       D.     It decreases
182.   What is an optocoupler?
       A.     A resistor and a capacitor
       B.     A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
       C.     An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
       D.     An LED and a phototransistor
183.   What is an optoisolator?
       A.     An LED and a phototransistor
       B.     A P-N junction that develops an excess positive
charge when exposed to light
       C.     An LED and a capacitor
       D.     An LED and a solar cell
184.   What is an optical shaft encoder?
       A.     An array of optocouplers chopped by a stationary
wheel
       B.     An array of optocouplers whose light transmission
path is controlled by a rotating wheel
       C.     An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity
is controlled by a stationary wheel
       D.     An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity
is controlled by a rotating wheel
185.   What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids
produce a noticeable change in?
       A.     The capacitance of the solid
       B.     The inductance of the solid
       C.     The specific gravity of the solid
       D.     The resistance of the solid
186.   What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RC
circuit?
       A.     The time required to charge the capacitor in the
circuit to 36.8% of the supply voltage
       B.     The time required to charge the capacitor in the
circuit to 36.8% of the supply current
       C.     The time required to charge the capacitor in the
circuit to 63.2% of the supply current
       D.     The time required to charge the capacitor in the
circuit to 63.2% of the supply voltage
187.   What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RL
circuit?
       A.     The time required for the current in the circuit to
build up to 36.8% of the maximum value
       B.     The time required for the voltage in the circuit to
build up to 63.2% of the maximum value
       C.     The time required for the current in the circuit to
build up to 63.2% of the maximum value
       D.     The time required for the voltage in the circuit to
build up to 36.8% of the maximum value
188.   What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in
an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
       A.     An exponential rate of one
       B.     One time constant
       C.     One exponential period
       D.     A time factor of one
189.   What is the term for the time required for the current in an
RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?
       A.     One time constant
       B.     An exponential period of one
       C.     A time factor of one
       D.     One exponential rate
190.   What is the term for the time it takes for a charged
capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial
value of stored charge?
       A.     One discharge period
       B.     An exponential discharge rate of one
       C.     A discharge factor of one
       D.     One time constant
191.   What is meant by back EMF?
       A.     A current equal to the applied EMF
       B.     An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of
the applied EMF
       C.     A current that opposes the applied EMF
       D.     A voltage that opposes the applied EMF
192.   After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is
charged to what percentage of the supply voltage?
       A.     36.8%
       B.     63.2%
       C.     86.5%
       D.     95%
193.   After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is
discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage?
       A.     86.5%
       B.     63.2%
       C.     36.8%
       D.     13.5%
194.   What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
       A.     4700 seconds
       B.     470 seconds
       C.     47 seconds
       D.     0.47 seconds
195.   What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-
microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 1-megohm resistor?
       A.     220 seconds
       B.     22 seconds
       C.     2.2 seconds
       D.     0.22 seconds
196.   What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-
microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?
       A.     470 seconds
       B.     47 seconds
       C.     4.7 seconds
       D.     0.47 seconds
197.   What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-
microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel?
       A.     470 seconds
       B.     47 seconds
       C.     4.7 seconds
       D.     0.47 seconds
198.   What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-
microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series?
       A.     55 seconds
       B.     110 seconds
       C.     220 seconds
       D.     440 seconds
199.   What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-
microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
       A.     22 seconds
       B.     44 seconds
       C.     220 seconds
       D.     440 seconds
200.   What is the time constant of a circuit having one 100-
microfarad capacitor, one 220-microfarad capacitor, one 470- kilohm
resistor and one 1-megohm resistor all in series?
       A.     68.8 seconds
       B.     101.1 seconds
       C.     220.0 seconds
       D.     470.0 seconds
201.   What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-
microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel?
       A.     0.47 seconds
       B.     47 seconds
       C.     220 seconds
       D.     470 seconds
202.   What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
       A.     221 seconds
       B.     221000 seconds
       C.     470 seconds
       D.     470000 seconds
203.   What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
       A.     103 seconds
       B.     220 seconds
       C.     470 seconds
       D.     470000 seconds
204.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to
decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
       A.     12.64 seconds
       B.     0.02 seconds
       C.     1 second
       D.     7.98 seconds
205.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to
decrease to 2.71 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
       A.     0.04 seconds
       B.     0.02 seconds
       C.     7.36 seconds
       D.     12.64 seconds
206.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to
decrease to 1 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm
resistor is connected across it?
       A.     0.01 seconds
       B.     0.02 seconds
       C.     0.04 seconds
       D.     0.06 seconds
207.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to
decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
       A.     0.08 seconds
       B.     0.6 seconds
       C.     0.4 seconds
       D.     0.2 seconds
208.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to
decrease to 0.13 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-
megohm resistor is connected across it?
       A.     0.06 seconds
       B.     0.08 seconds
       C.     0.1 seconds
       D.     1.2 seconds
209.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to
decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm
resistor is connected across it?
       A.     80 seconds
       B.     294 seconds
       C.     368 seconds
       D.     450 seconds
210.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to
decrease to 108 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm
resistor is connected across it?
       A.     225 seconds
       B.     294 seconds
       C.     450 seconds
       D.     900 seconds
211.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to
decrease to 39.9 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm
resistor is connected across it?
       A.     1350 seconds
       B.     900 seconds
       C.     450 seconds
       D.     225 seconds
212.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to
decrease to 40.2 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm
resistor is connected across it?
       A.     Approximately 225 seconds
       B.     Approximately 450 seconds
       C.     Approximately 900 seconds
       D.     Approximately 1350 seconds
213.   How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to
decrease to 14.8 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm
resistor is connected across it?
       A.     Approximately 900 seconds
       B.     Approximately 1350 seconds
       C.     Approximately 1804 seconds
       D.     Approximately 2000 seconds
214.   What is a Smith Chart?
       A.     A graph for calculating impedance along transmission
lines
       B.     A graph for calculating great circle bearings
       C.     A graph for calculating antenna height
       D.     A graph for calculating radiation patterns
215.   What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith Chart?
       A.     Voltage and current circles
       B.     Resistance and reactance circles
       C.     Voltage and current lines
       D.     Resistance and reactance lines
216.   What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith
Chart?
       A.     Beam headings and radiation patterns
       B.     Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
       C.     Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
       D.     Circuit gain calculations
217.   What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith
Chart?
       A.     Resistance and voltage
       B.     Reactance and voltage
       C.     Resistance and reactance
       D.     Voltage and impedance
218.   What is the only straight line on a blank Smith Chart?
       A.     The reactance axis
       B.     The resistance axis
       C.     The voltage axis
       D.     The current axis
219.   What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith
Chart?
       A.     Reassigning resistance values with regard to the
reactance axis
       B.     Reassigning reactance values with regard to the
resistance axis
       C.     Reassigning resistance values with regard to the
prime center
       D.     Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance
axis
220.   What are the curved lines on a Smith Chart?
       A.     Portions of current circles
       B.     Portions of voltage circles
       C.     Portions of resistance circles
       D.     Portions of reactance circles
221.   What is the third family of circles which are added to a
Smith Chart during the process of solving problems?
       A.     Coaxial length circles
       B.     Antenna length circles
       C.     Standing wave ratio circles
       D.     Radiation pattern circles
222.   How are the wavelength scales on a Smith Chart calibrated?
       A.     In portions of transmission line electrical frequency
       B.     In portions of transmission line electrical
wavelength
       C.     In portions of antenna electrical wavelength
       D.     In portions of antenna electrical frequency
223.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-
microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     20 + j19
       B.     20 - j19
       C.     19 + j20
       D.     19 - j20
224.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-
microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     30 - j3
       B.     30 + j3
       C.     3 + j30
       D.     3 - j30
225.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-
microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     40 + j31400
       B.     40 - j31400
       C.     31400 + j40
       D.     31400 - j40
226.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-
picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500
kHz?  (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     2490 ohms,  / 51.5 degrees
       B.     4000 ohms,  / 38.5 degrees
       C.     5112 ohms,  / -38.5 degrees
       D.     2490 ohms,  / -51.5 degrees
227.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.001-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     400 - j318
       B.     318 - j400
       C.     400 + j318
       D.     318 + j400
228.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?  (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     121 ohms,  / 35 degrees
       B.     141 ohms,  / 45 degrees
       C.     161 ohms,  / 55 degrees
       D.     181 ohms,  / 65 degrees
229.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm
resistor all connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar
coordinates.)
       A.     100 ohms,  / 90 degrees
       B.      10 ohms,  / 0 degrees
       C.     100 ohms,  / 0 degrees
       D.      10 ohms,  / 100 degrees
230.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-
reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     240 ohms,  / 36.9 degrees
       B.     240 ohms,  / -36.9 degrees
       C.     500 ohms,  / 53.1 degrees
       D.     500 ohms,  / -53.1 degrees
231.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-
reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400- ohm
resistor, all connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar
coordinates.)
       A.     500 ohms,  / 37 degrees
       B.     400 ohms,  / 27 degrees
       C.     300 ohms,  / 17 degrees
       D.     200 ohms,  / 10 degrees
232.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-
reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     240 ohms,  / 36.9 degrees
       B.     240 ohms,  / -36.9 degrees
       C.     500 ohms,  / 53.1 degrees
       D.     500 ohms,  / -53.1 degrees
233.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-
millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     200 - j188
       B.     200 + j188
       C.     188 + j200
       D.     188 - j200
234.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-
millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor, at 10 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     628 + j600
       B.     628 - j600
       C.     600 + j628
       D.     600 - j628
235.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.01-
microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50
kHz?  (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     150 - j159
       B.     150 + j159
       C.     159 + j150
       D.     159 - j150
236.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-
microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     40 + j32
       B.     40 - j32
       C.     32 - j40
       D.     32 + j40
237.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-
microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz?
(Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.)
       A.     0.000034 + j.032
       B.     0.032 + j.000034
       C.     0.000034 - j.032
       D.     0.032 - j.000034
238.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     121 ohms,  / -25 degrees
       B.     141 ohms,  / -45 degrees
       C.     161 ohms,  / -65 degrees
       D.     191 ohms,  / -85 degrees
239.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     31 ohms,  / -15 degrees
       B.     51 ohms,  / -25 degrees
       C.     71 ohms,  / -45 degrees
       D.     91 ohms,  / -65 degrees
240.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-
reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?  (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     400 ohms,  / 27 degrees
       B.     500 ohms,  / 37 degrees
       C.     600 ohms,  / 47 degrees
       D.     700 ohms,  / 57 degrees
241.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-
reactance inductor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.      71 ohms,  / 45 degrees
       B.      81 ohms,  / 55 degrees
       C.      91 ohms,  / 65 degrees
       D.     100 ohms,  / 75 degrees
242.   What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-
reactance capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? (Specify
your answer in polar coordinates.)
       A.     200 ohms,  / -10 degrees
       B.     300 ohms,  / -17 degrees
       C.     400 ohms,  / -27 degrees
       D.     500 ohms,  / -37 degrees
243.   What is an enhancement-mode FET?
       A.     An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the
gate
       B.     An FET with a channel that allows a current when the
gate voltage is zero
       C.     An FET without a channel to hinder current through
the gate
       D.     An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero
gate voltage
244.   What is a depletion-mode FET?
       A.     An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage
applied; a current flows with zero gate voltage
       B.     An FET that has a channel that blocks current when
the gate voltage is zero
       C.     An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero
gate voltage
       D.     An FET without a channel to hinder current through
the gate
245.   What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET?
               A      B      C      D
246.   What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET?
              A      B      C      D
247.   What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate
MOSFET?
                     A      B      C      D
248.   What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate
MOSFET?
                     A      B      C      D
249.   Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective
Zener diodes?
       A.     The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage
reference to provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate
voltage
       B.     The gate-protective Zener diode protects the
substrate from excessive voltages
       C.     The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate
voltage within specifications to prevent the device from
overheating
       D.     The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate
insulation from being punctured by small static charges or
excessive voltages
250.   What do the initials CMOS stand for?
       A.     Common mode oscillating system
       B.     Complementary mica-oxide silicon
       C.     Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
       D.     Complementary metal-oxide substrate
251.   Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and
CMOS devices?
       A.     They are susceptible to damage from static charges
       B.     They have fragile leads that may break off
       C.     They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that
are susceptible to breakage
       D.     They are light sensitive
252.   What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction FET?
                    A      B      C      D
253.   How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor
compare with that of a bipolar transistor?
       A.     One cannot compare input impedance without first
knowing the supply voltage
       B.     An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor
has high input impedance
       C.     The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors
is the same
       D.     An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor
has low input impedance
254.   What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
       A.     Gate 1, gate 2, drain
       B.     Emitter, base, collector
       C.     Emitter, base 1, base 2
       D.     Gate, drain, source
255.   What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
                    A      B      C      D
256.   What are the two basic types of junction field-effect
transistors?
       A.     N-channel and P-channel
       B.     High power and low power
       C.     MOSFET and GaAsFET
       D.     Silicon FET and germanium FET
257.   What is an operational amplifier?
       A.     A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier
whose characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit
       B.     A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the
amplifier unit
       C.     An amplifier used to increase the average output of
frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
       D.     A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an
RF amplifier
258.   What is the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier?
                    A      B      C      D
259.   What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?
       A.     Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance,
infinite gain, flat frequency response
       B.     Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance,
infinite gain, flat frequency response
       C.     Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite
gain, flat frequency response
       D.     Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance,
infinite gain, flat frequency response
260.   What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
       A.     The external feedback network
       B.     The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage
       C.     The power supply voltage
       D.     The PNP collector load
261.   What is meant by the term op-amp offset voltage?
       A.     The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input
voltage
       B.     The difference between the output voltage of the op-
amp and the input voltage required in the following stage
       C.     The potential between the amplifier-input terminals
of the op-amp in a closed-loop condition
       D.     The potential between the amplifier-input terminals
of the op-amp in an open-loop condition
262.   What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
       A.     100 ohms
       B.     1000 ohms
       C.     Very low
       D.     Very high
263.   What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-
amp?
       A.     Very low
       B.     Very high
       C.     100 ohms
       D.     1000 ohms
264.   What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
       A.     An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio
detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
       B.     An electronic circuit also known as a monostable
multivibrator
       C.     An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-
pull amplifier with a differential input
       D.     An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase
detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator
265.   What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?
       A.     Wideband AF and RF power amplification
       B.     Comparison of two digital input signals, digital
pulse counter
       C.     Photovolatic conversion, optical coupling
       D.     Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
266.   A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled
oscillator and a frequency standard.  The difference between the
two frequencies produces an error voltage that changes the voltage-
controlled oscillator frequency.  What is the name of the circuit?
       A.     A doubly balanced mixer
       B.     A phase-locked loop
       C.     A differential voltage amplifier
       D.     A variable frequency oscillator
267.   What do the initials TTL stand for?
       A.     Resistor-transistor logic
       B.     Transistor-transistor logic
       C.     Diode-transistor logic
       D.     Emitter-coupled logic
268.   What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series
integrated circuits?
       A.     12.00 volts
       B.     50.00 volts
       C.     5.00 volts
       D.     13.60 volts
269.   What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if
they are left open?
       A.     A high logic state
       B.     A low logic state
       C.     The device becomes randomized and will not provide
consistent high or low logic states
       D.     Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
270.   What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device
operating with a 5-volt power supply?
       A.     2.0 to 5.5 volts
       B.     1.5 to 3.0 volts
       C.     1.0 to 1.5 volts
       D.     -5.0 to -2.0 volts
271.   What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating
with a 5-volt power supply?
       A.     -2.0 to -5.5 volts
       B.     2.0 to 5.5 volts
       C.     -0.6 to 0.8 volts
       D.     -0.8 to 0.4 volts
272.   Why do circuits containing TTL devices have several bypass
capacitors per printed circuit board?
       A.     To prevent RFI to receivers
       B.     To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus
eliminating RFI
       C.     To filter out switching harmonics
       D.     To prevent switching transients from appearing on the
supply line
273.   What is a CMOS IC?
       A.     A chip with only P-channel transistors
       B.     A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors
       C.     A chip with only N-channel transistors
       D.     A chip with only bipolar transistors
274.   What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?
       A.     Small size
       B.     Low current consumption
       C.     Low cost
       D.     Ease of circuit design
275.   Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity
to noise on the input signal or power supply?
       A.     Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit
design
       B.     The input switching threshold is about two times the
power supply voltage
       C.     The input switching threshold is about one-half the
power supply voltage
       D.     Input signals are stronger
276.   What is the name for a vacuum tube that is commonly found in
television cameras used for amateur television?
       A.     A traveling-wave tube
       B.     A klystron tube
       C.     A vidicon tube
       D.     A cathode-ray tube
277.   How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
       A.     By varying the beam voltage
       B.     By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids
inside the tube
       C.     By varying the beam current
       D.     By varying electromagnetic fields
278.   What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency
waves are to be displayed on the screen?
       A.     Electromagnetic
       B.     Tubular
       C.     Radar
       D.     Electrostatic
279.   What is a flip-flop circuit?
       A.     A binary sequential logic element with one stable
state
       B.     A binary sequential logic element with eight stable
states
       C.     A binary sequential logic element with four stable
states
       D.     A binary sequential logic element with two stable
states
280.   How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-
flop circuit?
       A.     1
       B.     2
       C.     3
       D.     4
281.   What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?
       A.     An "AND" gate
       B.     An "OR" gate
       C.     A flip-flop
       D.     A clock
282.   How many output changes are obtained for every two trigger
pulses applied to the input of a bistable T flip-flop circuit?
       A.     No output level changes
       B.     One output level change
       C.     Two output level changes
       D.     Four output level changes
283.   The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically
by what type of digital circuit?
       A.     A free-running multivibrator
       B.     An OR gate
       C.     A bistable multivibrator
       D.     An astable multivibrator
284.   What type of digital IC is also known as a latch?
       A.     A decade counter
       B.     An OR gate
       C.     A flip-flop
       D.     An op-amp
285.   How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal
frequency by 4?
       A.     1
       B.     2
       C.     4
       D.     8
286.   What is an astable multivibrator?
       A.     A circuit that alternates between two stable states
       B.     A circuit that alternates between a stable state and
an unstable state
       C.     A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse
and pass the other
       D.     A circuit that alternates between two unstable states
287.   What is a monostable multivibrator?
       A.     A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the
opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its
original state
       B.     A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square
wave oscillating between 1 and 0
       C.     A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either
the 0 or the 1 configuration
       D.     A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage,
regardless of variations in the input voltage
288.   What is an AND gate?
       A.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output
only if all inputs are logic "1"
       B.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output
only if all inputs are logic "1"
       C.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if
only one input is a logic "1"
       D.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if
all inputs are logic "0"
289.   What is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
                     A      B      C      D
290.   What is a NAND gate?
       A.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output
only when all inputs are logic "0"
       B.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output
only when all inputs are logic "1"
       C.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if
some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
       D.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output
only when all inputs are logic "1"
291.   What is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
                     A      B      C      D
292.   What is an OR gate?
       A.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if
any input is logic "1"
       B.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if
any input is logic "1"
       C.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if
all inputs are logic "1"
       D.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if
all inputs are logic "0"
293.   What is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
                     A      B      C      D
294.   What is a NOR gate?
       A.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output
only if all inputs are logic "0"
       B.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output
only if all inputs are logic "1"
       C.     A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if
any or all inputs are logic "1"
       D.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if
some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
295.   What is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
                     A      B      C      D
296.   What is a NOT gate?
       A.     A circuit that produces a logic "O" at its output
when the input is logic "1" and vice versa
       B.     A circuit that does not allow data transmission when
its input is high
       C.     A circuit that allows data transmission only when its
input is high
       D.     A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output
when the input is logic "1" and vice versa
297.   What is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate?
                     A      B      C      D
298.   What is a truth table?
       A.     A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic
states of an op-amp
       B.     A diagram showing logic states when the digital
device's output is true
       C.     A list of input combinations and their corresponding
outputs that characterizes a digital device's function
       D.     A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic
states of an op-amp
299.   In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 1?
       A.     A low level
       B.     A positive-transition level
       C.     A negative-transition level
       D.     A high level
300.   In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 0?
       A.     A low level
       B.     A positive-transition level
       C.     A negative-transition level
       D.     A high level
301.   In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 1?
       A.     A low level
       B.     A positive-transition level
       C.     A negative-transition level
       D.     A high level
302.   In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent
a logic 0?
       A.     A low level
       B.     A positive-transition level
       C.     A negative-transition level
       D.     A high level
303.   What is a crystal-controlled marker generator?
       A.     A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a
band of frequencies
       B.     An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the
craft's location relative to the inner and outer markers at
airports
       C.     A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency
and amplitude can be varied over a wide range
       D.     A high-stability oscillator that generates a series
of reference signals at known frequency intervals
304.   What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-
controlled marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
       A.     An emitter-follower
       B.     Two frequency multipliers
       C.     Two flip-flops
       D.     A voltage divider
305.   What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
       A.     It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of
an RS flip-flop
       B.     It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter
can display the operating frequency
       C.     It prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter
circuit
       D.     It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter
can display the operating frequency
306.   What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on?
       A.     The internal crystal reference
       B.     A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying
output
       C.     Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power
supply
       D.     Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes
307.   How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?
       A.     6
       B.     10
       C.     15
       D.     20
308.   What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
       A.     Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-
segment LED display
       B.     Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses
       C.     Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse
       D.     Add two decimal numbers
309.   What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC
elements in an audio filter?
       A.     Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse
than can LC elements
       B.     Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
       C.     Op-amps are available in more styles and types than
are LC elements
       D.     Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
310.   What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an
op-amp RC active filter?
       A.     Values of capacitances and resistances built into the
op-amp
       B.     Values of capacitances and resistances external to
the op-amp
       C.     Voltage and frequency of DC input to the op-amp power
supply
       D.     Regulated DC voltage output from the op-amp power
supply
311.   What are the principle uses of an op-amp RC active filter in
amateur circuitry?
       A.     Op-amp circuits are used as high-pass filters to
block RFI at the input to receivers
       B.     Op-amp circuits are used as low-pass filters between
transmitters and transmission lines
       C.     Op-amp circuits are used as filters for smoothing
power-supply output
       D.     Op-amp circuits are used as audio filters for
receivers
312.   What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC
active filter circuit?        A.     Electrolytic
       B.     Disc ceramic
       C.     Polystyrene
       D.     Paper dielectric
313.   How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented
in a multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
       A.     Restrict both gain and Q
       B.     Restrict gain, but increase Q
       C.     Restrict Q, but increase gain
       D.     Increase both gain and Q
314.   Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in
an amateur receiver?
       A.     In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
       B.     In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker
or phone jack
       C.     Between the balanced modulator and frequency
multiplier
       D.     In the low-level audio stages
315.   What parameter must be selected when designing an audio
filter using an op-amp?
       A.     Bandpass characteristics
       B.     Desired current gain
       C.     Temperature coefficient
       D.     Output-offset overshoot
316.   What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?
       A.     Dynamic range and third-order intercept
       B.     Cost and availability
       C.     Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
       D.     Bandwidth and noise figure
317.   What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a
communications receiver?
       A.     The noise floor of the receiver
       B.     The power-supply output ripple
       C.     The two-tone intermodulation distortion
       D.     The input impedance to the detector
318.   What is the theoretical minimum noise floor of a receiver
with a 400-Hertz bandwidth?
       A.     -141 dBm
       B.     -148 dBm
       C.     -174 dBm
       D.     -180 dBm
319.   How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry
of a communications receiver?
       A.     By using an audio filter
       B.     By using a preselector
       C.     By using an additional RF amplifier stage
       D.     By using an additional IF amplifier stage
320.   A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is
optimum for what type of amateur signals?
       A.     CW
       B.     SSB voice
       C.     Double-sideband AM voice
       D.     FSK RTTY
321.   What occurs during A1A reception if too narrow a filter
bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
       A.     Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
       B.     Output-offset overshoot
       C.     Cross-modulation distortion
       D.     Filter ringing
322.   What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry
of an amateur emission F1B receiver?
       A.     100 Hz
       B.     300 Hz
       C.     6000 Hz
       D.     2400 Hz
323.   A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is
optimum for what type of amateur signals?
       A.     SSB voice
       B.     Double-sideband AM
       C.     CW
       D.     FSK RTTY
324.   What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry
of an emission J3E receiver?
       A.     1 kHz
       B.     2.4 kHz
       C.     4.2 kHz
       D.     4.8 kHz
325.   What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter
bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
       A.     Output-offset overshoot
       B.     Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
       C.     Thermal-noise distortion
       D.     Filter ringing
326.   How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section
compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?
       A.     Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the
received-signal bandwidth
       B.     Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the
received- signal bandwidth
       C.     Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times
the received-signal bandwidth
       D.     Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times
the received-signal bandwidth
327.   What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry
of an emission F3E receiver?
       A.     1 kHz
       B.     2.4 kHz
       C.     4.2 kHz
       D.     15 kHz
328.   How can selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of a
communications receiver?
       A.     Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to
the local oscillator circuitry
       B.     Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar
transistor followed by a capacitor of the proper value
       C.     Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to
the audio stage only
       D.     Incorporate a high-Q filter
329.   What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications
receiver?
       A.     The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest
frequency to which the receiver can be tuned
       B.     The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the
receiver, referenced to one milliwatt
       C.     The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and
the largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion
products
       D.     The difference between the lowest-frequency signal
and the highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the
tuning knob
330.   What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable
receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal?
       A.     Intermodulation distortion
       B.     Noise floor
       C.     Noise figure
       D.     Dynamic range
331.   What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
       A.     Cross-modulation of the desired signal and
desensitization from strong adjacent signals
       B.     Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning,
and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be
transmitted
       C.     Cross-modulation of the desired signal and
insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
       D.     Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of
all but the strongest received signals
332.   The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in
the presence of strong signals outside the amateur band of interest
is indicated by what parameter?
       A.     Noise figure
       B.     Blocking dynamic range
       C.     Signal-to-noise ratio
       D.     Audio output
333.   What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications
receiver?
       A.     The level of noise entering the receiver from the
antenna
       B.     The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz
removed from the carrier frequency
       C.     The level of noise generated in the front end and
succeeding stages of a receiver
       D.     The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals
at frequencies close to the desired one
334.   Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise
figure?
       A.     The audio stage
       B.     The IF strip
       C.     The RF stage
       D.     The local oscillator
335.   What is an inverting op-amp circuit?
       A.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase
       B.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input and output signals are in phase
       C.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase
       D.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input impedance is held at zero, while the output impedance is
high
336.   What is a noninverting op-amp circuit?
       A.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase
       B.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input and output signals are in phase
       C.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase
       D.     An operational amplifier circuit connected such that
the input impedance is held at zero while the output impedance is
high
337.   What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure
4BG-5 when R1 is 1000 ohms and Rf is 100 kilohms?
       A.     0.1
       B.     1
       C.     10
       D.     100
338.   What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure
4BG-5 when R1 is 1800 ohms and Rf is 68 kilohms?
       A.     1
       B.     0.03
       C.     38
       D.     76
339.   What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure
4BG-5 when R1 is 3300 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms?
       A.     28
       B.     14
       C.     7
       D.     0.07
340.   What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure
4BG-5 when R1 is 10 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms?
       A.     0.00021
       B.     9400
       C.     4700
       D.     2350
341.   How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational
amplifier vary with frequency?
       A.     The gain increases linearly with increasing frequency
       B.     The gain decreases linearly with increasing frequency
       C.     The gain decreases logarithmically with increasing
frequency
       D.     The gain does not vary with frequency
342.   What determines the input impedance in a FET common-source
amplifier?
       A.     The input impedance is essentially determined by the
resistance between the drain and substrate
       B.     The input impedance is essentially determined by the
resistance between the source and drain
       C.     The input impedance is essentially determined by the
gate biasing network
       D.     The input impedance is essentially determined by the
resistance between the source and substrate
343.   What determines the output impedance in a FET common-source
amplifier?
       A.     The output impedance is essentially determined by the
drain resistor
       B.     The output impedance is essentially determined by the
input impedance of the FET
       C.     The output impedance is essentially determined by the
drain-supply voltage
       D.     The output impedance is essentially determined by the
gate supply voltage
344.   What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure
4BG-7 when L is 10 microhenrys, Cf is 156 picofarads, and Cv is 50
picofarads maximum and 2 picofarads minimum?
       A.     3508 through 4004 kHz
       B.     6998 through 7360 kHz
       C.     13.396 through 14.402 MHz
       D.     49.998 through 54.101 MHz
345.   What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure
4BG-7 when L is 30 microhenrys, Cf is 200 picofarads, and Cv is 80
picofarads maximum and 10 picofarads minimum?
       A.     1737 through 2005 kHz
       B.     3507 through 4004 kHz
       C.     7002 through 7354 kHz
       D.     14.990 through 15.020 MHz
346.   What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor?
       A.     It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
       B.     It removes direct current from the circuit by
shunting DC to ground
       C.     It removes alternating current by providing a low
impedance path to ground
       D.     It acts as a voltage divider
347.   What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor?
       A.     It blocks direct current and passes alternating
current
       B.     It blocks alternating current and passes direct
current
       C.     It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit
       D.     It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit
348.   In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the
modulating signal vary?
       A.     Pulse duration
       B.     Pulse frequency
       C.     Pulse amplitude
       D.     Pulse intensity
349.   What is the type of modulation in which the modulating
signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse?
       A.     Amplitude modulation
       B.     Frequency modulation
       C.     Pulse-width modulation
       D.     Pulse-height modulation
350.   In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does
the modulating signal vary?
       A.     The number of pulses per second
       B.     Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
       C.     The duration of the pulses
       D.     The time at which each pulse occurs
351.   Why is the transmitter peak power in a pulse modulation
system much greater than its average power?
       A.     The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
       B.     The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice-
modulated
       C.     The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage
spikes are generated within the modulator
       D.     The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the
pulses are also amplitude-modulated
352.   What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width
modulation system?
       A.     A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
       B.     The position of a standard pulse is varied by an
amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant
       C.     A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
       D.     The number of standard pulses per second varies
depending on the voice waveform at that instant
353.   What digital code consists of elements having unequal
length?
       A.     ASCII
       B.     AX.25
       C.     Baudot
       D.     Morse code
354.   What digital communications system is well suited for
meteor-scatter communications?
       A.     ACSSB
       B.     AMTOR
       C.     Packet radio
       D.     Spread spectrum
355.   The International Organization for Standardization has
developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio
communications structure.  What level is responsible for the actual
transmission of data and handshaking signals?
       A.     The physical layer
       B.     The transport layer
       C.     The communications layer
       D.     The synchronization layer
356.   The International Organization for Standardization has
developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio
communications structure.  What level arranges the bits into frames
and controls data flow?
       A.     The transport layer
       B.     The link layer
       C.     The communications layer
       D.     The synchronization layer
357.   What is one advantage of using the ASCII code, with its
larger character set, instead of the Baudot code?
       A.     ASCII includes built-in error-correction features
       B.     ASCII characters contain fewer information bits than
Baudot characters
       C.     It is possible to transmit upper and lower case text
       D.     The larger character set allows store-and-forward
control characters to be added to a message
358.   What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use?
       A.     Each character is sent twice
       B.     The receiving station checks the calculated frame
check sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
       C.     Mode A AMTOR does not include an error control system
       D.     The receiving station automatically requests repeats
when needed
359.   What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use?
       A.     Each character is sent twice
       B.     The receiving station checks the calculated frame
check sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
       C.     Mode B AMTOR does not include an error control system
       D.     The receiving station automatically requests repeats
when needed
360.   What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY data pulse?
       A.     11 milliseconds
       B.     40 milliseconds
       C.     31 milliseconds
       D.     22 milliseconds
361.   What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start pulse?
       A.     11 milliseconds
       B.     22 milliseconds
       C.     31 milliseconds
       D.     40 milliseconds
362.   What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop pulse?
       A.     11 milliseconds
       B.     18 milliseconds
       C.     31 milliseconds
       D.     40 milliseconds
363.   What is the primary advantage of AMTOR over Baudot RTTY?
       A.     AMTOR characters contain fewer information bits than
Baudot characters
       B.     AMTOR includes an error detection system
       C.     Surplus radioteletype machines that use the AMTOR
code are readily available
       D.     Photographs can be transmitted using AMTOR
364.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-
baud Baudot emission F1B transmission?
       A.     45 Hz
       B.     250 Hz
       C.     442 Hz
       D.     600 Hz
365.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-
baud Baudot emission J2B transmission?
       A.     45 Hz
       B.     249 Hz
       C.     442 Hz
       D.     600 Hz
366.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-
baud Baudot emission F1B transmission?
       A.     250 Hz
       B.     278 Hz
       C.     442 Hz
       D.     600 Hz
367.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-
baud Baudot emission J2B transmission?
       A.     250 Hz
       B.     278 Hz
       C.     442 Hz
       D.     600 Hz
368.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international
Morse code emission A1A transmission?
       A.     Approximately 13 Hz
       B.     Approximately 26 Hz
       C.     Approximately 52 Hz
       D.     Approximately 104 Hz
369.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international
Morse code emission J2A transmission?
       A.     Approximately 13 Hz
       B.     Approximately 26 Hz
       C.     Approximately 52 Hz
       D.     Approximately 104 Hz
370.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hertz shift, 1200-
baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
       A.     1000 Hz
       B.     1200 Hz
       C.     440 Hz
       D.     2400 Hz
371.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency
shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
       A.     15.36 kHz
       B.     9.6 kHz
       C.     4.8 kHz
       D.     5.76 kHz
372.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency
shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
       A.     15.36 kHz
       B.     9.6 kHz
       C.     4.8 kHz
       D.     5.76 kHz
373.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international
Morse code emission A1A transmission?
       A.     Approximately 5 Hz
       B.     Approximately 10 Hz
       C.     Approximately 20 Hz
       D.     Approximately 40 Hz
374.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international
Morse code emission J2A transmission?
       A.     Approximately 5 Hz
       B.     Approximately 10 Hz
       C.     Approximately 20 Hz
       D.     Approximately 40 Hz
375.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-
baud ASCII emission F1B transmission?
       A.     304 Hz
       B.     314 Hz
       C.     608 Hz
       D.     628 Hz
376.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-
baud ASCII emission J2B transmission?
       A.     304 Hz
       B.     314 Hz
       C.     608 Hz
       D.     628 Hz
377.   What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 300-
baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
       A.     0 Hz
       B.     0.3 kHz
       C.     0.5 kHz
       D.     1.0 kHz
378.   What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-Hertz shift, 300-
baud ASCII emission J2D transmission?
       A.     0 Hz
       B.     0.3 kHz
       C.     0.5 kHz
       D.     1.0 kHz
379.   What is amplitude compandored single sideband?
       A.     Reception of single sideband with a conventional CW
receiver
       B.     Reception of single sideband with a conventional FM
receiver
       C.     Single sideband incorporating speech compression at
the transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver
       D.     Single sideband incorporating speech expansion at the
transmitter and speech compression at the receiver
380.   What is meant by compandoring?
       A.     Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding
it at the receiver
       B.     Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-
length modulation
       C.     Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to
produce a single-sideband signal
       D.     Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal
by converting it to a pulse-modulated signal
381.   What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude
compandored single sideband system?
       A.     It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
       B.     It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
       C.     It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-
powered interference
       D.     It acts as a beacon to indicate the present
propagation characteristic of the band
382.   What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an
amplitude compandored single sideband system?
       A.     1 kHz
       B.     5 MHz
       C.     455 kHz
       D.     3 kHz
383.   How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given
frequency band for amplitude compandored single sideband systems
over conventional emission F3E systems?
       A.     2
       B.     4
       C.     8
       D.     16
384.   What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system
in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined
sequence?
       A.     Amplitude compandored single sideband
       B.     AMTOR
       C.     Time-domain frequency modulation
       D.     Spread spectrum communication
385.   What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum
communications system where the center frequency of a conventional
carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a
pseudo-random list of channels?
       A.     Frequency hopping
       B.     Direct sequence
       C.     Time-domain frequency modulation
       D.     Frequency compandored spread spectrum
386.   What term is used to describe a spread spectrum
communications system in which a very fast binary bit stream is
used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
       A.     Frequency hopping
       B.     Direct sequence
       C.     Binary phase-shift keying
       D.     Phase compandored spread spectrum
387.   What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive
excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
       A.     Peak-to-peak voltage
       B.     Inverse peak negative voltage
       C.     RMS voltage
       D.     Peak positive voltage
388.   What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative
excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
       A.     Peak-to-peak voltage
       B.     Inverse peak positive voltage
       C.     RMS voltage
       D.     Peak negative voltage
389.   What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure
by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
       A.     Peak-to-peak voltage
       B.     RMS voltage
       C.     Average voltage
       D.     DC voltage
390.   What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage
and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical wave form?
       A.     1:1
       B.     2:1
       C.     3:1
       D.     4:1
391.   What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the
signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
       A.     Peak voltage
       B.     Average voltage
       C.     RMS voltage
       D.     Resting voltage
392.   What is an isotropic radiator?
       A.     A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
       B.     In the northern hemisphere, an antenna whose
directive pattern is constant in southern directions
       C.     An antenna high enough in the air that its directive
pattern is substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
       D.     An antenna whose directive pattern is substantially
unaffected by the spacing of the elements
393.   When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?
       A.     When comparing the gains of directional antennas
       B.     When testing a transmission line for standing wave
ratio
       C.     When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the
transmission in a southerly direction
       D.     When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
394.   What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for
antenna measurements?
       A.     Quarter-wave vertical
       B.     Yagi
       C.     Bobtail curtain
       D.     Isotropic radiator
395.   What purpose does an isotropic radiator serve?
       A.     It is used to compare signal strengths (at a distant
point) of different transmitters
       B.     It is used as a reference for antenna gain
measurements
       C.     It is used as a dummy load for tuning transmitters
       D.     It is used to measure the standing-wave-ratio on a
transmission line
396.   How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an
isotropic radiator?
       A.     About 1.5 dB
       B.     About 2.1 dB
       C.     About 3.0 dB
       D.     About 6.0 dB
397.   How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength
dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
       A.     About 3.9 dB
       B.     About 6.0 dB
       C.     About 8.1 dB
       D.     About 10.0 dB
398.   How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength
dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
       A.     About 6.1 dB
       B.     About 9.9 dB
       C.     About 12.0 dB
       D.     About 14.1 dB
399.   What is the antenna pattern for an isotropic radiator?
       A.     A figure-8
       B.     A unidirectional cardioid
       C.     A parabola
       D.     A sphere
400.   What type of directivity pattern does an isotropic radiator
have?
       A.     A figure-8
       B.     A unidirectional cardioid
       C.     A parabola
       D.     A sphere
401.   What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of
phase?
       A.     Unidirectional cardioid
       B.     Omnidirectional
       C.     Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
       D.     Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
402.   What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of
phase?
       A.     Unidirectional cardioid
       B.     Figure-8 end-fire
       C.     Figure-8 broadside
       D.     Omnidirectional
403.   What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
       A.     Omnidirectional
       B.     Cardioid unidirectional
       C.     Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
       D.     Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
404.   How far apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas be
spaced in order to produce a figure-8 pattern that is broadside to
the plane of the verticals when fed in phase?
       A.     1/8 wavelength
       B.     1/4 wavelength
       C.     1/2 wavelength
       D.     1 wavelength
405.   How many 1/2 wavelengths apart should two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas be spaced to produce a figure-8 pattern that is
in line with the vertical antennas when they are fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
       A.     One half wavelength apart
       B.     Two half wavelengths apart
       C.     Three half wavelengths apart
       D.     Four half wavelengths apart
406.   What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical
antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of
phase?
       A.     Omnidirectional
       B.     Cardioid unidirectional
       C.     Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
       D.     Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
407.   What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees
out of phase?
       A.     Omnidirectional
       B.     Cardioid unidirectional
       C.     Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
       D.     Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
408.   What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
       A.     Omnidirectional
       B.     Cardioid unidirectional
       C.     Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
       D.     Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
409.   What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed in phase?
       A.     Substantially unidirectional
       B.     Elliptical
       C.     Cardioid unidirectional
       D.     Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
410.   What is a resonant rhombic antenna?
       A.     A unidirectional antenna, each of whose sides is
equal to half a wavelength and which is terminated in a resistance
equal to its characteristic impedance
       B.     A bidirectional antenna open at the end opposite that
to which the transmission line is connected and with each side
approximately equal to one wavelength
       C.     An antenna with an LC network at each vertex (other
than that to which the transmission line is connected) tuned to
resonate at the operating frequency
       D.     A high-frequency antenna, each of whose sides
contains traps for changing the resonance to match the band in use
411.   What is a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
       A.     A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance
equal to its characteristic impedance
       B.     An open-ended bidirectional antenna
       C.     An antenna resonant at approximately double the
frequency of the intended band of operation
       D.     A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two
adjacent sides and the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna
412.   What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
       A.     Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-
back ratio
       B.     High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
       C.     Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and
compact size
       D.     Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide
frequency range
413.   What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
       A.     It requires a large area for proper installation and
has a narrow bandwidth
       B.     It requires a large area for proper installation and
has a low front-to-back ratio
       C.     It requires a large amount of aluminum tubing and has
a low front-to-back ratio
       D.     It requires a large area and four sturdy supports for
proper installation
414.   What is the characteristic impedance at the input of a
nonresonant rhombic antenna?
       A.     50 to 55 ohms
       B.     70 to 75 ohms
       C.     300 to 350 ohms
       D.     700 to 800 ohms
415.   What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic
antenna?
       A.     It reflects the standing waves on the antenna
elements back to the transmitter
       B.     It changes the radiation pattern from essentially
bidirectional to essentially unidirectional
       C.     It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to
vertical polarization
       D.     It decreases the ground loss
416.   What should be the value of the terminating resistor on a
rhombic antenna?
       A.     About 50 ohms
       B.     About 75 ohms
       C.     About 800 ohms
       D.     About 1800 ohms
417.   What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required
at an amateur station in earth operation?
       A.     Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
       B.     Length of transmission line and impedance match
between receiver and transmission line
       C.     Preamplifier location on transmission line and
presence or absence of RF amplifier stages
       D.     Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit
418.   What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur
station in earth operation?
       A.     Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver
sensitivity
       B.     Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
       C.     Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground
receiving antenna
       D.     Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise
ratio, satellite transmitter power
419.   What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur
station in telecommand operation?
       A.     Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
       B.     Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver
sensitivity
       C.     Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground
receiving antenna
       D.     Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise
ratio, satellite transmitter power
420.   How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change
when the operating frequency is doubled?
       A.     Gain does not change
       B.     Gain is multiplied by 0.707
       C.     Gain increases 6 dB
       D.     Gain increases 3 dB
421.   What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is
increased?
       A.     The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is
increased
       B.     The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is
increased
       C.     The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain
of the antenna
       D.     The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased
422.   What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with
a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
       A.     10.1 degrees
       B.     20.3 degrees
       C.     45.0 degrees
       D.     60.9 degrees
423.   What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with
a gain of 30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
       A.     3.2 degrees
       B.     6.4 degrees
       C.     37 degrees
       D.     60.4 degrees
424.   What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with
a gain of 15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
       A.     72 degrees
       B.     52 degrees
       C.     36.1 degrees
       D.     3.61 degrees
425.   What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with
a gain of 12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
       A.     34.8 degrees
       B.     45.0 degrees
       C.     58.0 degrees
       D.     51.0 degrees
426.   How is circular polarization produced using linearly-
polarized antennas?
       A.     Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form
an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
       B.     Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with
the respective elements in parallel planes
       C.     Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with
the driven elements in the same plane, and fed 90 degrees out of
phase
       D.     Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with
the driven elements in the same plane, and fed in phase
427.   Why does an antenna system for earth operation (for
communications through a satellite) need to have rotators for both
azimuth and elevation control?
       A.     In order to point the antenna above the horizon to
avoid terrestrial interference
       B.     Satellite antennas require two rotators because they
are so large and heavy
       C.     In order to track the satellite as it orbits the
earth
       D.     The elevation rotator points the antenna at the
satellite and the azimuth rotator changes the antenna polarization
428.   What term describes a method used to match a high-impedance
transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the
line to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a
wavelength on each side of the driven element center?
       A.     The gamma matching system
       B.     The delta matching system
       C.     The omega matching system
       D.     The stub matching system
429.   What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which the
driven element is fed both at the center of that element and a
fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
       A.     The gamma matching system
       B.     The delta matching system
       C.     The omega matching system
       D.     The stub matching system
430.   What term describes a method of antenna impedance matching
that uses a short section of transmission line connected to the
antenna feed line near the antenna and perpendicular to the feed
line?
       A.     The gamma matching system
       B.     The delta matching system
       C.     The omega matching system
       D.     The stub matching system
431.   What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating
capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole
antenna for the 20-meter band?
       A.     70 pF
       B.     140 pF
       C.     200 pF
       D.     0.2 pF
432.   What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating
capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole
antenna for the 10-meter band?
       A.     70 pF
       B.     140 pF
       C.     200 pF
       D.     0.2 pF
433.    What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far
end?
       A.     A capacitive reactance
       B.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       C.     An inductive reactance
       D.     The same as the input impedance to the final
generator stage
434.   What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
       A.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       B.     An inductive reactance
       C.     A capacitive reactance
       D.     The same as the input impedance of the final
generator stage
435.   What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far
end?
       A.     A very high impedance
       B.     A very low impedance
       C.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line
       D.     The same as the generator output impedance
436.   What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
       A.     A very high impedance
       B.     A very low impedance
       C.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       D.     The same as the input impedance to the final
generator stage
437.   What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far
end?
       A.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       B.     An inductive reactance
       C.     A capacitive reactance
       D.     The same as the input impedance to the final
generator stage
438.   What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
       A.     A capacitive reactance
       B.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       C.     An inductive reactance
       D.     The same as the input impedance to the final
generator stage
439.   What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far
end?
       A.     A very high impedance
       B.     A very low impedance
       C.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       D.     The same as the output impedance of the generator
440.   What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission
line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
       A.     A very high impedance
       B.     A very low impedance
       C.     The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
       D.     The same as the output impedance of the generator